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PRACTICE QUESTIONS PART =6 ANSWERS AND RATIONALES
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Answers and Rationales
1. Answer D is correct.
It is important to assess the extremities for blood vessel occlusion in the client with sickle cell anemia because a change in capillary refill would indicate a change in circulation. Body temperature, motion, and sensation would not give informa-tion regarding peripheral circulation; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
2. Answer D is correct. Placing the client in semi-Fowler’s position provides the best oxygenation for this client. Flexion of the hips and knees, which includes the kneechest position, impedes circulation and is not correct positioning for this client. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
3. Answer B is correct.
It is important to keep the client in sickle cell crisis hydrated to prevent further sickling of the blood. Answer A is incorrect because a mechanical cuff places too much pressure on the arm. Answer C is incorrect because raising the knee gatch impedes circulation. Answer D is incorrect because Tylenol is too mild an anal-gesic for the client in crisis.
4. Answer C is correct. Hydration is important in the client with sickle cell disease to prevent thrombus formation. Popsicles, gelatin, juice, and pudding have high fluid content. The foods in answers A, B, and D do not aid in hydration and are, therefore, incorrect.
5. Answer C is correct.
The pulse oximetry indicates that oxygen levels are low; thus, oxygenation takes precedence over pain relief. Answer A is incorrect because although a warm environment reduces pain and minimizes sickling, it would not be a priority. Answer B is incorrect because although hydration is important, it would not require a bolus. Answer D is incorrect because Demerol is acidifying to the blood and increases sickling.
6. Answer C is correct.
Egg yolks, wheat bread, carrots, raisins, and green, leafy vegeta-bles are all high in iron, which is an important mineral for this client. Roast beef, cab-bage, and pork chops are also high in iron, but the side dishes accompanying these choices are not; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
7. Answer D is correct.
Taking a trip to the museum is the only answer that does not pose a threat. A family vacation in the Rocky Mountains at high altitudes, cold temper-atures, and airplane travel can cause sickling episodes and should be avoided; there-fore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
8. Answer D is correct.
The tongue of the client with B12 insufficiency is red and beefy. A, B, and C incorrect because enlarged spleen, elevated BP, and bradycardia are not associated with B12 deficiency.
9. Answer C is correct.
The oral mucosa and hard palate (roof of the mouth) are the best indicators of jaundice in dark-skinned persons. The conjunctiva can have normal deposits of fat, which give a yellowish hue; thus, answer A is incorrect. The soles of the feet can be yellow if they are calloused, making answer B incorrect; the shins would be an area of darker pigment, so answer D is incorrect.
10. Answer B is correct. When there are fewer red blood cells, there is less hemoglobin and less oxygen. Therefore, the client is often short of breath, as indicated in answer B. The client with anemia is often pale in color, has weight loss, and may be hypotensive. Answers A, C, and D are within normal and, therefore, are incorrect.
11. Answer A is correct.
The client with polycythemia vera is at risk for thrombus formation. Hydrating the client with at least 3L of fluid per day is important in preventing clot formation, so the statement to drink less than 500mL is incorrect. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they all contribute to the prevention of complications. Support hose promotes venous return, the electric razor prevents bleeding due to injury, and a diet low in iron is essential to preventing further red cell formation.
12. Answer C is correct. Radiation treatment for other types of cancer can contribute to the development of leukemia. Some hobbies and occupations involving chemicals are linked to leukemia, but not the ones in these answers; therefore, answers A and B are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because the incidence of leukemia is higher in twins not siblings.
13. Answer D is correct. Petechiae are not usually visualized on dark skin. The soles of the feet and palms of the hand provide a lighter surface for assessing the client for petichiae. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because the skin may be too dark to make an assessment.
14. Answer B is correct.
The client with leukemia is at risk for infection and has often had recurrent respiratory infections during the previous 6 months. Insomnolence, weight loss, and a decrease in alertness also occur in leukemia, but bleeding tendencies and infections are the primary clinical manifestations; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
15. Answer B is correct.
The client with acute leukemia has bleeding tendencies due to decreased platelet counts, and any injury would exacerbate the problem. The client would require close monitoring for hemorrhage, which is of higher priority than the diagnoses in answers A, C, and D, which are incorrect.
16. Answer A is correct. Radiation therapy often causes sterility in male clients and would be of primary importance to this client. The psychosocial needs of the client are important to address in light of the age and life choices. Hodgkin’s disease, however, has a good prognosis when diagnosed early. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are of lesser priority.
17. Answer A is correct. Clients with autoimmune thrombocytopenic purpura (ATP) have low platelet counts, making answer A the correct answer. White cell counts, potassium levels, and PTT are not affected in ATP; thus, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
18. Answer A is correct.
The normal platelet count is 120,000–400,000. Bleeding occurs in clients with low platelets. The priority is to prevent and minimize bleeding. Oxygenation in answer C is important, but platelets do not carry oxygen. Answers B and D are of lesser priority and are incorrect in this instance.
19. Answer C is correct.
A prolactinoma is a type of pituitary tumor. Elevating the head of the bed 30° avoids pressure on the sella turcica and helps to prevent headaches. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because Trendelenburg, Valsalva maneuver, and coughing all increase the intracranial pressure.
20. Answer B is correct.
The large amount of fluid loss can cause fluid and electrolyte imbal-ance that should be corrected. The loss of electrolytes would be reflected in the vital signs. Measuring the urinary output is important, but the stem already says that the client has polyuria, so answer A is incorrect. Encouraging fluid intake will not correct the prob-lem, making answer C incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because weighing the client is not necessary at this time.
21. Answer C is correct.
C is correct because direct pressure to the nose stops the bleed-ing. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not stop bleeding
22.Answer A is correct.
Blood pressure is the best indicator of cardiovascular collapse in the client who has had an adrenal gland removed. The remaining gland might have been sup-pressed due to the tumor activity. Temperature would be an indicator of infection, decreased output would be a clinical manifestation but would take longer to occur than blood pressure changes, and specific gravity changes occur with other disorders; there-fore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
23.Answer A is correct.
IV glucocorticoids raise the glucose levels and often require coverage with insulin. Answer B is not necessary at this time, sodium and potassium levels would be monitored when the client is receiving mineral corticoids, and daily weights is unnecessary; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
24. Answer B is correct. The parathyroid glands are responsible for calcium production and can be damaged during a thyroidectomy. The tingling can be due to low calcium levels. The crash cart would be needed in respiratory distress but would not be the next action to take; thus, answer A is incorrect. Hypertension occurs in thyroid storm and the drainage would occur in hemorrhage, so answers C and D are incorrect.
25. Answer D is correct.
The decrease in pulse can affect the cardiac output and lead to shock, which would take precedence over the other choices; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
26. Answer A is correct.
The client taking antilipidemics should be encouraged to report muscle weakness because this is a sign of rhabdomyolysis. The medication takes effect within 1 month of beginning therapy, so answer B is incorrect. The medication should be taken with water because fruit juice, particularly grapefruit, can decrease the effectiveness, making answer C incorrect. Liver function studies should be checked before beginning the medication, not after the fact, making answer D incorrect.
27.Answer B is correct. Hyperstat is given IV push for hypertensive crises, but it often causes hyperglycemia. The glucose level will drop rapidly when stopped. Answer A is incorrect because the hyperstat is given by IV push. The client should be placed in dorsal recumbent position, not Trendelenburg position, as stated in answer C. Answer D is incorrect because the medication does not have to be covered with foil.
28. Answer C is correct.
A heart rate of 60 in the baby should be reported immediately. The dose should be held if the heart rate is below 100bpm. The blood glucose, blood pressure, and respirations are within normal limits; thus answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
29.Answer C is correct. Nitroglycerine should be kept in a brown bottle (or even a special air- and water-tight, solid or plated silver or gold container) because of its instability and tendency to become less potent when exposed to air, light, or water. The supply should be replenished every 6 months, not 3 months, and one tablet should be taken every 5 minutes until pain subsides, so answers A and B are incorrect. If the pain does not subside, the client should report to the emergency room. The medication should be taken sublingually and should not be crushed, as stated in answer D.
30. Answer C is correct. Turkey contains the least amount of fats and cholesterol. Liver, eggs, beef, cream sauces, shrimp, cheese, and chocolate should be avoided by the client; thus, answers A, B, and D are incorrect. The client should bake meat rather than frying to avoid adding fat to the meat during cooking.
31. Answer B is correct.
The jugular veins in the neck should be assessed for distension. The other parts of the body will be edematous in right-sided congestive heart failure, not left-sided; thus, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
32. Answer A is correct.
The phlebostatic axis is located at the fifth intercostals space midax-illary line and is the correct placement of the manometer. The PMI or point of maximal impulse is located at the fifth intercostals space midclavicular line, so answer B is incor-rect. Erb’s point is the point at which you can hear the valves close simultaneously, mak-ing answer C incorrect. The Tail of Spence (the upper outer quadrant of the breast) is the area where most breast cancers are located and has nothing to do with placement of a manometer; thus, answer D is incorrect.
33. Answer B is correct.
Zestril is an ACE inhibitor and is frequently given with a diuretic such as Lasix for hypertension. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the order is accurate. There is no need to question the order, administer the medication sepa-rately, or contact the pharmacy.
34. Answer B is correct.
The best indicator of peripheral edema is measuring the extremi-ty. A paper tape measure should be used rather than one made of plastic or cloth, and the area should be marked with a pen, providing the most objective assessment. Answer A is incorrect because weighing the client will not indicate peripheral edema. Answer C is incorrect because checking the intake and output will not indicate periph-eral edema. Answer D is incorrect because checking for pitting edema is less reliable than measuring with a paper tape measure.
35. Answer D is correct. Clients with radium implants should have close contact limited to 30 minutes per visit. The general rule is limiting time spent exposed to radium, put-ting distance between people and the radium source, and using lead to shield against the radium. Teaching the family member these principles is extremely important. Answers A, B, and C are not empathetic and do not address the question; therefore, they are incorrect.
36. Answer B is correct.
The client with a facial stroke will have difficulty swallowing and chewing, and the foods in answer B provide the least amount of chewing. The foods in answers A, C, and D would require more chewing and, thus, are incorrect.
37.Answer A is correct. Novalog insulin onsets very quickly, so food should be available within 10–15 minutes of taking the insulin. Answer B does not address a particular type of insulin, so it is incorrect. NPH insulin peaks in 8–12 hours, so a snack should be eaten at the expected peak time. It may not be 3 p.m. as stated in answer C. Answer D is incorrect because there is no need to save the dessert until bedtime.
38. Answer B is correct.
The umbilical cord needs time to dry and fall off before putting the infant in the tub. Although answers A, C, and D might be important, they are not the primary answer to the question.
39. Answer D is correct. Leucovorin is the antidote for Methotrexate and Trimetrexate which are folic acid antagonists. Leucovorin is a folic acid derivative. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not treat iron deficiency, increase neu-trophils, or have a synergistic effect.
40. Answer A is correct.
The Hemophilus influenza vaccine is given at 4 months with the polio vaccine. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because these vaccines are given later in life.
41. Answer A is correct. Proton pump inhibitors should be taken prior to the meal. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect times for giving proton pump inhibitors like Nexium.
42. Answer A is correct.
If the client is a threat to the staff and to other clients the nurse should call for help and prepare to administer a medication such as Haldol to sedate him. Answer B is incorrect because simply telling the client to calm down will not work. Answer C is incorrect because telling the client that if he continues he will be punished is a threat and may further anger him. Answer D is incorrect because if the client is left alone he might harm himself.
43. Answer A is correct.
If the fundus of the client is displaced to the side, this might indicate a full bladder. The next action by the nurse should be to check for bladder dis-tention and catheterize, if necessary. The answers in B, C, and D are actions that relate to postpartal hemorrhage.
44. Answer C is correct.
A low-grade temperature, blood-tinged sputum, fatigue, and night sweats are symptoms consistent with tuberculosis. If the answer in A had said pneumo-cystis pneumonia, answer A would have been consistent with the symptoms given in the stem, but just saying pneumonia isn’t specific enough to diagnose the problem. Answers B and D are not directly related to the stem.
45. Answer B is correct.
If the client has a history of Prinzmetal’s angina, he should not be prescribed triptan preparations because they cause vasoconstriction and coronary spasms. There is no contraindication for taking triptan drugs in clients with diabetes, cancer, or cluster headaches making answers A, C, and D incorrect.
46.Answer A is correct. Kernig’s sign is positive if pain occurs on flexion of the hip and knee. The Brudzinski reflex is positive if pain occurs on flexion of the head and neck onto the chest so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D might be present but are not related to Kernig’s sign.
47. Answer B is correct. Apraxia is the inability to use objects appropriately. Agnosia is loss of sensory comprehension, anomia is the inability to find words, and aphasia is the inability to speak or understand so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
48. Answer C is correct. Increased confusion at night is known as ―sundowning‖ syndrome. This increased confusion occurs when the sun begins to set and continues during the night. Answer A is incorrect because fatigue is not necessarily present. Increased confusion at night is not part of normal aging; therefore, answer B is incor-rect. A delusion is a firm, fixed belief; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
49. Answer C is correct.
The client who is confused might forget that he ate earlier. Don’t argue with the client. Simply get him something to eat that will satisfy him until lunch. Answers A and D are incorrect because the nurse is dismissing the client. Answer B is validating the delusion.
50. Answer D is correct. Nausea and gastrointestinal upset are very common in clients taking acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as Exelon. Other side effects include liver toxicity, dizziness, unsteadiness, and clumsiness. The client might already be experi-encing urinary incontinence or headaches, but they are not necessarily associated; and the client with Alzheimer’s disease is already confused. Therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
51. Answer B is correct.
Any lesion should be reported to the doctor. This can indicate a herpes lesion. Clients with open lesions related to herpes are delivered by Cesarean section because there is a possibility of transmission of the infection to the fetus with direct contact to lesions. It is not enough to document the finding, so answer A is incorrect. The physician must make the decision to perform a C-section, making answer C incorrect. It is not enough to continue primary care, so answer D is incor-rect.
52. Answer B is correct.
The client with HPV is at higher risk for cervical and vaginal can-cer related to this STI. She is not at higher risk for the other cancers mentioned in answers A, C, and D, so those are incorrect.
53. Answer B is correct.
A lesion that is painful is most likely a herpetic lesion. A chancre lesion associated with syphilis is not painful, so answer A is incorrect. Condylomata lesions are painless warts, so answer D is incorrect. In answer C, gonorrhea does not present as a lesion, but is exhibited by a yellow discharge.
54.Answer C is correct. Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA) is the test for treponema pallidum. VDRL and RPR are screening tests done for syphilis, so answers A and B are incorrect. The Thayer-Martin culture is done for gonorrhea, so answer D is incor-rect. 221
55. Answer D is correct.
The criteria for HELLP is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. In answer A, an elevated blood glucose level is not associated with HELLP. Platelets are decreased, not elevated, in HELLP syndrome as stated in answer B. The creatinine levels are elevated in renal disease and are not associated with HELLP syndrome so answer C is incorrect.
56. Answer A is correct. Answer B elicits the triceps reflex, so it is incorrect. Answer C elicits the patella reflex, making it incorrect. Answer D elicits the radial nerve, so it is incorrect.
57. Answer B is correct. Brethine is used cautiously because it raises the blood glucose levels. Answers A, C, and D are all medications that are commonly used in the diabetic client, so they are incorrect.
58. Answer C is correct. When the L/S ratio reaches 2:1, the lungs are considered to be mature. The infant will most likely be small for gestational age and will not be at risk for birth trauma, so answer D is incorrect. The L/S ratio does not indicate congenital anomalies, as stated in answer A, and the infant is not at risk for intrauterine growth retardation, making answer B incorrect.
59. Answer C is correct. Jitteriness is a sign of seizure in the neonate. Crying, wakefulness, and yawning are expected in the newborn, so answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
60. Answer B is correct.
The client is expected to become sleepy, have hot flashes, and be lethargic. A decreasing urinary output, absence of the knee-jerk reflex, and decreased respirations indicate toxicity, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
61. Answer D is correct.
If the client experiences hypotension after an injection of epidur-al anesthetic, the nurse should turn her to the left side, apply oxygen by mask, and speed the IV infusion. If the blood pressure does not return to normal, the physician should be contacted. Epinephrine should be kept for emergency administration. Answer A is incorrect because placing the client in Trendelenburg position (head down) will allow the anesthesia to move up above the respiratory center, thereby decreasing the diaphragm’s ability to move up and down and ventilate the client. In answer B, the IV rate should be increased, not decreased. In answer C, the oxygen should be applied by mask, not cannula.
62. Answer A is correct. Cancer of the pancreas frequently leads to severe nausea and vomiting and altered glucose levels. The other problems are of lesser concern; thus, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
63. Answer C is correct. Uremic frost is most likely related to liver disease. It is not relat-ed to anemia, arteriosclerosis, or parathyroid disorders, therefore A, B, and D are incorrect.
64. Answer B is correct.
The vital signs indicate hypovolemic shock. They do not indicate cerebral tissue perfusion, airway clearance, or sensory perception alterations, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
65. Answer A is correct.
The client with osteogenesis imperfecta is at risk for pathological fractures and is likely to experience these fractures if he participates in contact sports. Answers B, C, and D are not factors for concern.
66. Answer D is correct.
The client with neutropenia should not have fresh fruit because it should be peeled and/or cooked before eating. Any source of bacteria should be eliminated, if possible. Answers A, B, and C will not help prevent bacterial invasions.
67. Answer B is correct.
The client’s BP is low so increasing the IV is priority. Answers A, C, and D are not the first priority therefore they are incorrect.
68. Answer C is correct.
If the client pulls the chest tube out of the chest, the nurse’s first action should be to cover the insertion site with an occlusive dressing. Afterward, the nurse should call the doctor, who will order a chest x-ray and possibly reinsert the tube. Answers A, B, and D are not the first action to be taken.
69. Answer A is correct.
The normal Protime is approximately 12–20 seconds. A Protime of 120 seconds indicates an extremely prolonged Protime and can result in a sponta-neous bleeding episode. Answers B, C, and D may be needed at a later time but are not the most important actions to take first.
70. Answer C is correct.
The food with the most calcium is the yogurt. Answers A, B, and D are good choices, but not as good as the yogurt, which has approximately 400mg of calcium.
71. Answer C is correct.
The client receiving magnesium sulfate should have a Foley catheter in place, and hourly intake and output should be checked. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate understanding of MgSO4 toxicity.
72. Answer D is correct.
D is correct because the best size cathlon to use in a child receiving blood is a 20 gauge. A, B, and C are incorrect because the size is either too large or too small.
73. Answer B is correct.
The nurse should be most concerned with laryngeal edema because of the area of burn. The next priority should be answer A, as well as hypona-tremia and hypokalemia in C and D, but these answers are not of primary concern so are incorrect.
74. Answer D is correct.
The client with diabetes indicates understanding of his illness by correctly demonstrating the technique for administration. A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not indicate understanding.
75. Answer D is correct.
At this time, pain beneath the cast is normal. The client’s fingers should be warm to the touch, and pulses should be present. Paresthesia is not normal and might indicate compartment syndrome. Therefore, Answers A, B, and C are incor-rect.
76.Answer B is correct.
Herbals can prolong bleeding times or interfere with antiviral medications, therefore the client should avoid the use of herbals. A and D are not con-traindicated for the client with AIDS. C is incorrect because there is no need to report all changes in skin color.
77. Answer D is correct.
It is not necessary to wear gloves to check the IV drip rate. The healthcare workers in answers A, B, and C indicate knowledge by their actions.
78. Answer D is correct.
The client that is having ECT is given a sedative. When the blood pressure cuff is inflated the fingers twitch when he has a grand mal seizure. A, B, and C are incorrect because there is no need for the nurse to take these interventions prior to ECT.
79. Answer A is correct. Pinworms cause rectal itching. B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not signs of pinworms.
80. Answer B is correct.
Bed linen should be washed in hot water. A is incorrect because special shampoos can be used by children under age 10. Answers C and D are incor-rect statements therefore they are wrong.
81. Answer A is correct.
The pregnant nurse can care for the client with HIV if she uses standard precautions. The clients in answers B, C, and D pose a risk to the pregnant nurse.
82. Answer A is correct.
The client with MRSA is placed on contact precautions. The clients in answers B, C, and D pose no risk to themselves or others.
83. Answer D is correct.
The doctor could be charged with malpractice, which is failing to perform, or performing an act that causes harm to the client. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they apply to other wrongful acts. Negligence is failing to perform care for the client; a tort is a wrongful act committed on the client or their belongings; and assault is a violent physical or verbal attack.
84. Answer D is correct.
The nursing assistant should not be assigned to administer a Fleets enema. They can administer a soap suds or tap water enema. The other tasks can be performed by the nursing assistant, therefore A, B, and C are incorrect.
85. Answer B is correct.
The mother is most likely describing a newborn rash. About 30% of all newborns have a rash on the face and forehead that dissipates in approxi-mately one month. A, C, and D are incorrect actions.
86. Answer B is correct.
The nurse who is pregnant should not be assigned to the client with a radium implant. The other nurses are not at risk when caring for this client, so A, C, and D are incorrect.
87. Answer B is correct.
The Joint Commission on Accreditation of Hospitals will proba-bly be interested in the problems in answers A and C. The failure of the nursing assis-tant to care for the client with hepatitis might result in termination, but is not of inter-est to the Joint Commission.
88.Answer B is correct.
The next action after discussing the problem with the nurse is to document the incident by filing a formal reprimand. If the behavior continues or if harm has resulted to the client, the nurse may be terminated and reported to the Board of Nursing, but these are not the first actions requested in the stem. A tort is a wrongful act to the client or his belongings and is not indicated in this instance. Therefore, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
89. Answer D is correct.
The client at highest risk for complications is the client with mul-tiple sclerosis who is being treated with cortisone via the central line. The clients in answers A, B, and C are more stable and can be seen later.
90. Answer B is correct.
The pregnant client and the client with a broken arm are the best choices for placing in the same room. The clients in answers A, C, and D need to be placed in separate rooms due to the serious natures of their injuries.
91. Answer A is correct. Before instilling the eardrops, the nurse should consider the age of the child because the ear should be pulled down and out to best deliver the drops in the ear canal. B, C, and D are not considerations when instilling eardrops in a small child.
92. Answer C is correct. Remember the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) when answering this question. Answer C is correct because a hotdog is the size and shape of the child’s trachea and poses a risk of aspiration. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because white grape juice, a grilled cheese sandwich, and ice cream do not pose a risk of aspiration for a child.
93. Answer C is correct.
A viral load of 200 is extremely low. This indicates that the client has a low risk for opportunistic illnesses. A, B, and D do not indicate understanding.
94. Answer B is correct.
Lantus insulin cannot be mixed with other insulins, but can be taken by the client taking regular insulin. A, C, and D are not correct methods of administering Lantus insulin with regular insulin.
95. Answer C is correct. Always remember your ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) when selecting an answer. A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not the priority.
96. Answer A is correct.
The client with glomerulonephritis will probably have hyperten-sion. B and C are vague answers and are therefore incorrect. D does not directly relate to glomerulonephritis.
97. Answer B is correct.
A child with epiglottis has the possibility of complete obstruction of the airway. For this reason the nurse should not evaluate the airway using a tongue blade. A, C, and D are allowed actions and are therefore incorrect.
98. Answer C is correct. Exophthalmos (protrusion of eyeballs) often occurs with hyperthy-roidism. The client with hyperthyroidism will often exhibit tachycardia, increased appetite, and weight loss; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
99. Answer D is correct.
The child with celiac disease should be on a glutenfree diet. Answers A, B, and C all contain gluten, while answer D gives the only choice of foods that does not contain gluten.
100.Answer C is correct. Remember the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) when answering this question. Before notifying the physician or assessing the pulse, oxygen should be applied to increase the oxygen saturation, so answers A and D are incorrect. The normal oxygen saturation is 92%–100%, making answer B incorrect
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