Wednesday, 29 July 2015
PRACTICE QUESTIONS PART =7 ANSWER AND RATIONALES
101. Answer B is correct.
An amniotomy is an artificial rupture of membranes and normal amniotic fluid is straw-colored and odorless. A, C, and D are abnormal findings.
102. Answer D is correct. Diabeta is an antidiabetic medication that can result in hypo-glycemia. A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not related to Diabeta.
103. Answer B is correct.
The normal fetal heart rate is 120–160bpm; 100110bpm is bradycardia. The first action would be to turn the client to the left side and apply oxy-gen. Answer A is not indicated at this time. Answer C is not the best action for clients experiencing bradycardia. There is no data to indicate the need to move the client to the delivery room at this time.
104. Answer D is correct. Arterial ulcers are painful. A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not describe arterial ulcers.
105. Answer B is correct. Applying a fetal heart monitor is the correct action at this time. There is no need to prepare for a Caesarean section or to place the client in Genu Pectoral position (knee-chest), so answers A and C are incorrect. Answer D is incorrect because there is no need for an ultrasound based on the finding.
106. Answer B is correct.
The nurse decides to apply an external monitor because the membranes are intact. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. The cervix is dilated enough to use an internal monitor, if necessary. An internal monitor can be applied if the client is at 0-station. Contraction intensity has no bearing on the application of the fetal monitor.
107. Answer D is correct. Clients admitted in labor are told not to eat during labor, to avoid nausea and vomiting. Ice chips may be allowed, but this amount of fluid might not be sufficient to prevent fluid volume deficit. In answer A, impaired gas exchange related to hyperventilation would be indicated during the transition phase. Answers B and C are not correct in relation to the stem.
108. Answer D is correct.
This information indicates a late deceleration. This type of decel-eration is caused by uteroplacental lack of oxygen. Answer A has no relation to the readings, so it’s incorrect; answer B results in a variable deceleration; and answer C is indicative of an early deceleration.
109. Answer C is correct.
The initial action by the nurse observing a late deceleration should turn the client to the side—preferably, the left side. Administering oxygen is also indicated. Answer A might be necessary but not before turning the client to her side. Answer B is not necessary at this time. Answer D is incorrect because there is no data to indicate that the monitor has been applied incorrectly.
110. Answer D is correct.
A deceleration to 90–100bpm at the end of contractions are late decelerations. This finding is ominous (bad) and should be reported. A, B, and D are normal findings and are therefore incorrect.
111. Answer C is correct. Epidural anesthesia decreases the urge to void and sensation of a full bladder. A full bladder will decrease the progression of labor. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect for the stem.
112. Answer B is correct. Lutenizing hormone released by the pituitary is responsible for ovulation. At about day 14, the continued increase in estrogen stimulates the release of lutenizing hormone from the anterior pituitary. The LH surge is responsible for ovulation, or the release of the dominant follicle in preparation for conception, which occurs within the next 10–12 hours after the LH levels peak. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because estrogen levels are high at the beginning of ovulation, the endometrial lining is thick, not thin, and the progesterone levels are high, not low.
113. Answer C is correct.
The success of the rhythm method of birth control is dependent on the client’s menses being regular. It is not dependent on the age of the client, fre-quency of intercourse, or range of the client’s temperature; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
114. Answer C is correct.
The best method of birth control for the client with diabetes is the diaphragm. A permanent intrauterine device can cause a continuing inflammatory response in diabetics that should be avoided, oral contraceptives tend to elevate blood glucose levels, and contraceptive sponges are not good at preventing pregnancy. Therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
115. Answer D is correct.
The signs of an ectopic pregnancy are vague until the fallopian tube ruptures. The client will complain of sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant that radiates down the leg or up into the chest. Painless vaginal bleeding is a sign of placenta previa, abdominal cramping is a sign of labor, and throbbing pain in the upper quadrant is not a sign of an ectopic pregnancy, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.
116. Answer C is correct.
All of the choices are tasty, but the pregnant client needs a diet that is balanced and has increased amounts of calcium. Answer A is lacking in fruits and milk. Answer B contains the potato chips, which contain a large amount of sodi-um. Answer C contains meat, fruit, potato salad, and yogurt, which has about 360mg of calcium. Answer D is not the best diet because it lacks vegetables and milk prod-ucts.
117. Answer B is correct.
The client with hyperemesis has persistent nausea and vomiting. With vomiting comes dehydration. When the client is dehydrated, she will have meta-bolic acidosis. Answers A and C are incorrect because they are respiratory dehydra-tion. Answer D is incorrect because the client will not be in alkalosis with persistent vomiting.
118. Answer B is correct.
The most definitive diagnosis of pregnancy is the presence of fetal heart tones. The signs in answers A, C, and D are subjective and might be related to other medical conditions. Answers A and C may be related to a hydatidiform mole, and answer D is often present before menses or with the use of oral contraceptives.
119. Answer C is correct.
The infant of a diabetic mother is usually large for gestational age. After birth, glucose levels fall rapidly due to the absence of glucose from the mother. Answer A is incorrect because the infant will not be small for gestational age. Answer B is incorrect because the infant will not be hyperglycemic. Answer D is incor-rect because the infant will be large, not small, and will be hypoglycemic, not hyper-glycemic.
120. Answer B is correct.
When the client is taking oral contraceptives and begins antibiotics, another method of birth control should be used. Antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. Approximately 5–10 pounds of weight gain is not unusual, so answer A is incorrect. If the client misses a birth control pill, she should be instructed to take the pill as soon as she remembers the pill. Answer C is incorrect. If she misses two, she should take two; if she misses more than two, she should take the missed pills but use another method of birth control for the remainder of the cycle. Answer D is incorrect because changes in menstrual flow are expected in clients using oral contraceptives. Often these clients have lighter menses.
121. Answer B is correct.
Clients with HIV should not breastfeed because the infection can be transmitted to the baby through breast milk. The clients in answers A, C, and D— those with diabetes, hypertension, and thyroid disease—can be allowed to breastfeed.
122. Answer A is correct.
The symptoms of painless vaginal bleeding are consistent with placenta previa. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect. Cervical check for dilation is con-traindicated because this can increase the bleeding. Checking for firmness of the uterus can be done, but the first action should be to check the fetal heart tones. A detailed history can be done later.
123. Answer D is correct.
The client should be advised to come to the labor and delivery unit when the contractions are every 5 minutes and consistent. She should also be told to report to the hospital if she experiences rupture of membranes or extreme bleeding. She should not wait until the contractions are every 2 minutes or until she has bloody discharge, so answers A and B are incorrect. Answer C is a vague answer and can be related to a urinary tract infection.
124. Answer A is correct. Infants of mothers who smoke are often low in birth weight. Infants who are large for gestational age are associated with diabetic mothers, so answer B is incorrect. Preterm births are associated with smoking, but not with appro-priate size for gestation, making answer C incorrect. Growth retardation is associated with smoking, but this does not affect the infant length; therefore, answer D is incor-rect.
125. Answer A is correct.
To provide protection against antibody production, RhoGam should be given within 72 hours. The answers in B, C, and D are too late to provide antibody protection. RhoGam can also be given during pregnancy.
126. Answer B is correct. When the membranes rupture, there is often a transient drop in the fetal heart tones. The heart tones should return to baseline quickly. Any alteration in fetal heart tones, such as bradycardia or tachycardia, should be reported. After the fetal heart tones are assessed, the nurse should evaluate the cervical dilation, vital signs, and level of discomfort, making answers A, C, and D incorrect.
127. Answer A is correct.
The active phase of labor occurs when the client is dilated 4–7cm. The latent or early phase of labor is from 1cm to 3cm in dilation, so answers B and D are incorrect. The transition phase of labor is 8–10cm in dilation, making answer C incorrect.
128. Answer B is correct.
The infant of an addicted mother will undergo withdrawal. Snugly wrapping the infant in a blanket will help prevent the muscle irritability that these babies often experience. Teaching the mother to provide tactile stimulation or provide for early infant stimulation are incorrect because he is irritable and needs quiet and lit-tle stimulation at this time, so answers A and D are incorrect. Placing the infant in an infant seat in answer C is incorrect because this will also cause movement that can increase muscle irritability.
129. Answer C is correct. Following epidural anesthesia, the client should be checked for hypotension and signs of shock every 5 minutes for 15 minutes. The client can be checked for cervical dilation later after she is stable. The client should not be positioned supine because the anesthesia can move above the respiratory center and the client can stop breathing. Fetal heart tones should be assessed after the blood pres-sure is checked. Therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
130. Answer B is correct.
The best way to prevent post-operative wound infection is hand washing. Use of prescribed antibiotics will treat infection, not prevent infections, mak-ing answer A incorrect. Wearing a mask and asking the client to cover her mouth are good practices but will not prevent wound infections; therefore, answers C and D are incorrect.
131. Answer B is correct.
The client with a hip fracture will most likely have disalignment. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because all fractures cause pain, and coolness of the extremities and absence of pulses are indicative of compartment syndrome or peripheral vascular disease.
132. Answer B is correct.
After menopause, women lack hormones necessary to absorb and utilize calcium. Doing weight-bearing exercises and taking calcium supplements can help to prevent osteoporosis but are not causes, so answers A and C are incor-rect. Body types that frequently experience osteoporosis are thin Caucasian females, but they are not most likely related to osteoporosis, so answer D is incorrect.
133. Answer B is correct.
The infant’s hips should be off the bed approximately 15° in Bryant’s traction. Answer A is incorrect because this does not indicate that the traction is working correctly, nor does C. Answer D is incorrect because Bryant’s traction is a skin traction, not a skeletal traction.
134. Answer A is correct. Balanced skeletal traction uses pins and screws. A Steinman pin goes through large bones and is used to stabilize large bones such as the femur. Answer B is incorrect because only the affected leg is in traction. Kirschner wires are used to stabilize small bones such as fingers and toes, as in answer C. Answer D is incorrect because this type of traction is not used for fractured hips.
135. Answer A is correct. Bleeding is a common complication of orthopedic surgery. The blood-collection device should be checked frequently to ensure that the client is not hemorrhaging. The client’s pain should be assessed, but this is not life-threatening. When the client is in less danger, the nutritional status should be assessed and an immobilizer is not used; thus, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
136. Answer A is correct.
The client’s family member should be taught to flush the tube after each feeding and clamp the tube. The placement should be checked before feedings, and indigestion can occur with the PEG tube, just as it can occur with any client, so answers B and C are incorrect. Medications can be ordered for indigestion, but it is not a reason for alarm. A percutaneous endoscopy gastrostomy tube is used for clients who have experienced difficulty swallowing. The tube is inserted directly into the stomach and does not require swallowing; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
137. Answer C is correct.
The client with a total knee replacement should be assessed for anemia. An hgb of 7 is extremely low and might require a blood transfusion. Scant bleeding on the dressing is not extreme. Circle and date and time the bleeding and monitor for changes in the client’s status. A low-grade temperature is not unusual after surgery. Ensure that the client is well hydrated, and recheck the temperature in one hour. Voiding after surgery is also not uncommon and no need for concern; there-fore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
138. Answer B is correct.
The parents make stained glass as a hobby. Stained glass is put together with lead, which can drop on the work area, where the child can consume the lead beads. Answers A, C, and D do not pose a threat to the child.
139. Answer A is correct.
The equipment that can help with activities of daily living is the high-seat commode. The hip should be kept higher than the knee. The recliner is good because it prevents 90° flexion but not daily activities. A TENS (Transcutaneous Electrical Nerve Stimulation) unit helps with pain management and an abduction pil-low is used to prevent adduction of the hip and possibly dislocation of the prosthesis; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
140. Answer B is correct. Narcan is the antidote for narcotic overdose. If hypoxia occurs, the client should have oxygen administered by mask, not cannula. There is no data to support the administration of blood products or cardioresuscitation, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
141. Answer B is correct.
The 6-year-old should have a roommate as close to the same age as possible, so the 12-year-old is the best match. The 10-year-old with sarcoma has cancer and will be treated with chemotherapy that makes him immune suppressed, the 6-year-old with osteomylitis is infected, and the client in answer A is too old and is female; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
142. Answer B is correct.
Cox II inhibitors have been associated with heart attacks and strokes. Any changes in cardiac status or signs of a stroke should be reported imme-diately, along with any changes in bowel or bladder habits because bleeding has been linked to use of Cox II inhibitors. The client does not have to take the medication with milk, remain upright, or allow 6 weeks for optimal effect, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
143. Answer D is correct.
A plaster-of-Paris cast takes 24 hours to dry, and the client should not bear weight for 24 hours. The cast should be handled with the palms, not the fingertips, so answer A is incorrect. Petaling a cast is covering the end of the cast with cast batting or a sock, to prevent skin irritation and flaking of the skin under the cast. B is incorrect because petaling the cast is done by the health care provider who applied the cast. The client should be told not to dry the cast with a hair dryer because this causes hot spots and could burn the client. This also causes unequal drying; thus, answer C is incorrect.
144. Answer A is correct.
There is no reason that the client’s friends should not be allowed to autograph the cast; it will not harm the cast in any way, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
145. Answer A is correct.
The nurse is performing the pin care correctly when she uses ster-ile gloves and Q-tips. Clean gloves are not acceptable. A licensed practical nurse can perform pin care, there is no need to clean the weights; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
146. Answer A is correct.
A body cast or spica cast extends from the upper abdomen to the knees or below. Bowel sounds should be checked to ensure that the client is not experiencing a paralytic illeus. Checking the blood pressure is a treatment for any client, offering pain medication is not called for, and checking for swelling isn’t specific to the stem, so answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
147. Answer C is correct.
Halo traction will be ordered for the client with a cervical frac-ture. Russell’s traction is used for bones of the lower extremities, as is Buck’s traction. Cruchfield tongs are used while in the hospital and the client is immobile; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
148. Answer B is correct.
The controller for the continuous passive-motion device should be placed away from the client. Many clients complain of pain while having treatments with the CPM, so they might turn off the machine. The CPM flexes and extends the leg. The client is in the bed during CPM therapy, so answer A is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because clients will experience pain with the treatment. Use of the CPM does not alleviate the need for physical therapy, as suggested in answer D.
149. Answer A is correct.
The client’s palms should rest lightly on the handles. The elbows should be flexed no more than 30° but should not be extended. Answer B is incorrect because 0° is not a relaxed angle for the elbows and will not facilitate correct walker use. The client should walk to the middle of the walker, not to the front of the walker, making answer C incorrect. The client should be taught not to carry the walker because this would not provide stability; thus, answer D is incorrect.
150. Answer C is correct.
The client with a prolapsed cord should be treated by elevating the hips and covering the cord with a moist, sterile saline gauze. The nurse should use her fingers to push up on the presenting part until a cesarean section can be performed. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect. The nurse should not attempt to replace the cord, turn the client on the side, or cover with a dry gauze.
151. Answer B is correct.
Chest tubes work to reinflate the lung and drain serous fluid. The tube does not equalize expansion of the lungs. Pain is associated with collapse of the lung, and insertion of chest tubes is painful, so answers A and C are incorrect. Answer D is true, but this is not the primary rationale for performing chest tube insertion.
152. Answer D is correct. Success with breastfeeding depends on many factors, but the most dependable reason for success is desire and willingness to continue the breast-feeding until the infant and mother have time to adapt. The educational level, the infant’s birth weight, and the size of the mother’s breast have nothing to do with suc-cess, so answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
153. Answer C is correct.
Green-tinged amniotic fluid is indicative of meconium staining. This finding indicates fetal distress. The presence of scant bloody discharge is normal, as are frequent urination and moderate uterine contractions, making answers A, B, and D incorrect.
154. Answer C is correct. Duration is measured from the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction. Answer A refers to frequency. Answer B is incorrect because we do not measure from the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. Duration is not measured from the peak of the contraction to the end, as stated in D.
155. Answer B is correct.
The client receiving Pitocin should be monitored for decelera-tions. There is no association with Pitocin use and hypoglycemia, maternal hyper-reflexia, or fetal movement; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
156. Answer D is correct.
Fetal development depends on adequate nutrition and insulin regulation. Insulin needs increase during the second and third trimesters, insulin requirements do not moderate as the pregnancy progresses, and elevated human choronic gonadotrophin elevates insulin needs, not decreases them; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
157. Answer A is correct.
A calm environment is needed to prevent seizure activity. Any stimulation can precipitate seizures. Obtaining a diet history should be done later, and administering an analgesic is not indicated because there is no data in the stem to indicate pain. Therefore, answers B and C are incorrect. Assessing the fetal heart tones is important, but this is not the highest priority in this situation as stated in answer D.
158. Answer A is correct.
The client who is age 42 is at risk for fetal anomalies such as Down syndrome and other chromosomal aberrations. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect NURSING PAPERS because the client is not at higher risk for respiratory distress syndrome or pathological jaundice, and Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder.
159. Answer C is correct.
The client with a missed abortion will have induction of labor. Prostin E. is a form of prostaglandin used to soften the cervix. Magnesium sulfate is used for preterm labor and preeclampsia, calcium gluconate is the antidote for mag-nesium sulfate, and Parlodel is a dopamine receptor stimulant used to treat Parkinson’s disease; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect. Parlodel was used at one time to dry breast milk.
160. Answer A is correct.
The client’s blood pressure and urinary output are within normal limits. The only alteration from normal is the decreased deep tendon reflexes. The nurse should continue to monitor the blood pressure and check the magnesium level. The therapeutic level is 4.8–9.6mg/dL. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no need to stop the infusion at this time or slow the rate. Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate, but there is no data to indicate toxicity.
161. Answer C is correct. Autosomal recessive disorders can be passed from the parents to the infant. If both parents pass the trait, the child will get two abnormal genes and the disease results. Parents can also pass the trait to the infant. Answer A is incorrect because, to have an affected newborn, the parents must be carriers. Answer B is incorrect because both parents must be carriers. Answer D is incorrect because the parents might have affected children
162. Answer D is correct.
Alpha fetoprotein is a screening test done to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida. The test is not mandatory, as stated in answer A. It does not indicate cardiovascular defects, and the mother’s age has no bearing on the need for the test, so answers B and C are incorrect.
163. Answer B is correct. During pregnancy, the thyroid gland triples in size. This makes it more difficult to regulate thyroid medication. Answer A is incorrect because there could be a need for thyroid medication during pregnancy. Answer C is incorrect because the thyroid function does not slow. Fetal growth is not arrested if thyroid medication is con-tinued, so answer D is incorrect.
164. Answer C is correct. Cyanosis of the feet and hands is acrocyanosis. This is a normal finding 1 minute after birth. An apical pulse should be 120–160, and the baby should have muscle tone, making answers A and B incorrect. Jaundice immediately after birth is pathological jaundice and is abnormal, so answer D is incorrect.
165. Answer A is correct.
Clients with sickle cell crises are treated with heat, hydration, oxygen, and pain relief. Fluids are increased, not decreased. Blood transfusions are usually not required, and the client can be delivered vaginally; thus, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
166. Answer A is correct.
Before ultrasonography, the client should be taught to drink plenty of fluids and not void. The client may ambulate, an enema is not needed, and there is no need to withhold food for 8 hours. Therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
167. Answer D is correct.DOWNLOAD NURSING PAPERS APPS
By 1 year of age, the infant is expected to triple his birth weight. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they are too low.
168. Answer B is correct.
A nonstress test is done to evaluate periodic movement of the fetus. It is not done to evaluate lung maturity as in answer A. An oxytocin challenge test shows the effect of contractions on fetal heart rate and a nonstress test does not measure neurological well-being of the fetus, so answers C and D are incorrect.
169. Answer D is correct. Hypospadias is a condition in which there is an opening on the under side of the penis. Answers A, B, and C do not describe hypospadias therefore they are incorrect.
170. Answer A is correct. Transition is the time during labor when the client loses concen-tration due to intense contractions. Potential for injury related to precipitate delivery has nothing to do with the dilation of the cervix, so answer B is incorrect. There is no data to indicate that the client has had anesthesia or fluid volume deficit, making answers C and D incorrect.
171. Answer C is correct. Varicella is chicken pox. This herpes virus is treated with antiviral medications. The client is not treated with antibiotics or anticoagulants as stated in answers A and D. The client might have a fever before the rash appears, but when the rash appears, the temperature is usually gone, so answer B is incorrect.
172. Answer B is correct. Clients with chest pain can be treated with nitroglycerin, a beta blocker such as propanolol, or Varapamil. There is no indication for an antibiotic such as Ampicillin, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
173. Answer B is correct.
Anti-inflammatory drugs should be taken with meals to avoid stomach upset. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. Clients with rheumatoid arthritis should exercise, but not to the point of pain. Alternating hot and cold is not necessary, especially because warm, moist soaks are more useful in decreasing pain. Weightbearing activities such as walking are useful but is not the best answer for the stem.
174. Answer D is correct. Morphine is contraindicated in clients with gallbladder disease and pancreatitis because morphine causes spasms of the Sphenter of Oddi. Meperidine, Mylanta, and Cimetadine are ordered for pancreatitis, making answers A, B, and C incorrect.
175. Answer B is correct. Hallucinogenic drugs can cause hallucinations. Continuous observation is ordered to prevent the client from harming himself during withdrawal. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because hallucinogenic drugs don’t create both stimulant and depressant effects or produce severe respiratory depression. However, they do produce psychological dependence rather than physical dependence.
176. Answer B is correct. Barbiturates create a sedative effect. When the client stops tak-ing barbiturates, he will experience tachycardia, diarrhea, and tachpnea. Answer A is incorrect even though depression and suicidal ideation go along with barbiturate use; it is not the priority. Muscle cramps and abdominal pain are vague symptoms that could be associated with other problems. Tachycardia is associated with stopping bar-biturates, but euphoria is not.
177. Answer A is correct.
If the fetal heart tones are heard in the right upper abdomen, the infant is in a breech presentation. If the infant is positioned in the right occipital ante-rior presentation, the FHTs will be located in the right lower quadrant, so answer B is incorrect. If the fetus is in the sacral position, the FHTs will be located in the center of the abdomen, so answer C is incorrect. If the FHTs are heard in the left lower abdomen, the infant is most likely in the left occipital transverse position, making answer D incorrect.
178. Answer D is correct. Asthma is the presence of bronchiolar spasms. This spasm can be brought on by allergies or anxiety. Answer A is incorrect because the primary phys-iological alteration is not inflammation. Answer B is incorrect because there is the pro-duction of abnormally viscous mucus, not a primary alteration. Answer C is incorrect because infection is not primary to asthma.
179. Answer A is correct.
The client with mania is seldom sitting long enough to eat and burns many calories for energy. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be treated the same as other clients. Small meals are not a correct option for this client. Allowing her into the kitchen gives her privileges that other clients do not have and should not be allowed, so answer D is incorrect.
180. Answer B is correct. Bryant’s traction is used for fractured femurs and dislocated hips. The hips should be elevated 15° off the bed. Answer A is incorrect because the hips should not be resting on the bed. Answer C is incorrect because the hips should not be above the level of the body. Answer D is incorrect because the hips and legs should not be flat on the bed.
181. Answer B is correct.
Herpes zoster is shingles. Clients with shingles should be placed in contact precautions. Wearing gloves during care will prevent transmission of the virus. Covering the lesions with a sterile gauze is not necessary, antibiotics are not prescribed for herpes zoster, and oxygen is not necessary for shingles; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
182. Answer B is correct.
A trough level should be drawn 30 minutes before the third or fourth dose. The times in answers A, C, and D are incorrect times to draw blood levels.
183. Answer B is correct.
The client using a diaphragm should keep the diaphragm in a cool location. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect. She should refrain from leaving the diaphragm in longer than 8 hours, not 4 hours. She should have the diaphragm resized when she gains or loses 10 pounds or has abdominal surgery.
184. Answer C is correct. Mothers who plan to breastfeed should drink plenty of liquids, and four glasses is not enough in a 24-hour period. Wearing a support bra is a good practice for the mother who is breastfeeding as well as the mother who plans to bot-tle-feed, so answer A is incorrect. Expressing milk from the breast will stimulate milk production, making answer B incorrect. Allowing the water to run over the breast will also facilitate ―letdown,‖ when the milk begins to be produced; thus, answer D is incorrect.
185. Answer A is correct.
The facial nerve is cranial nerve VII. If damage occurs, the client will experience facial pain. The auditory nerve is responsible for hearing loss and tinni-tus, eye movement is controlled by the Trochear or C IV, and the olfactory nerve con-trols smell; therefore, answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
186. Answer B is correct. Clients taking Pyridium should be taught that the medication will turn the urine orange or red. It is not associated with diarrhea, mental confusion, or changes in taste; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect. Pyridium can also cause a yellowish color to skin and sclera if taken in large doses.
187. Answer B is correct. Accutane is contraindicated for use by pregnant clients because it causes teratogenic effects. Calcium levels, apical pulse, and creatinine levels are not necessary; therefore, answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
188. Answer D is correct. Clients taking Acyclovir should be encouraged to drink plenty of fluids because renal impairment can occur. Limiting activity is not necessary, nor is eating a high-carbohydrate diet. Use of an incentive spirometer is not specific to clients taking Acyclovir; therefore, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
189. Answer A is correct.
Clients who are pregnant should not have a CAT because radioactive isotopes are used. However, clients with a titanium hip replacement can have an MRI, or CAT scan so answer B is incorrect. No antibiotics are used with this test and the client should remain still only when instructed, so answers C and D are not specific to this test.
190. Answer D is correct.
Clients taking Amphotericin B should be monitored for liver, renal, and bone marrow function because this drug is toxic to the kidneys and liver, and causes bone marrow suppression. Jaundice is a sign of liver toxicity and is not specific to the use of Amphotericin B. Changes in vision are not related, and nausea is a side effect, not a sign of toxicity; nor is urinary frequency. Thus, answers A, B, and C are incorrect.
191. Answer C is correct.
The client with chest pain should be seen first because this could indicate a myocardial infarction. The client in answer A has a blood glucose within normal limits. The client in answer B is maintained on blood pressure medica-tion. The client in answer D is in no distress. 235
192. Answer B is correct. Pancreatic enzymes should be given with meals for optimal effects. These enzymes assist the body in digesting needed nutrients. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect methods of administering pancreatic enzymes.
193. Answer C is correct.
The lens allows light to pass through the pupil and focus light on the retina. The lens does not stimulate the retina, assist with eye movement, or magnify small objects, so answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
194. Answer C is correct.
Miotic eyedrops constrict the pupil and allow aqueous humor to drain out of the Canal of Schlemm. They do not anesthetize the cornea, dilate the pupil, or paralyze the muscles of the eye, making answers A, B, and D incorrect.
195. Answer A is correct.
When using eyedrops, allow 5 minutes between the two medica-tions; therefore, answer B is incorrect. These medications can be used by the same client but it is not necessary to use a cyclopegic with these medications, making answers C and D incorrect.
196. Answer B is correct.
Clients with color blindness will most likely have problems dis-tinguishing violets, blues, and green. The colors in answers A, C, and D are less com-monly affected.
197. Answer D is correct.
The client with a pacemaker should be taught to count and record his pulse rate. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect. Ankle edema is a sign of right-sided congestive heart failure. Although this is not normal, it is often present in clients with heart disease. If the edema is present in the hands and face, it should be reported. Checking the blood pressure daily is not necessary for these clients. The client with a pacemaker can use a microwave oven, but he should stand about 5 feet from the oven while it is operating.
198. Answer A is correct.
Clients who are being retrained for bladder control should be taught to withhold fluids after about 7 p.m., or 1900. The times in answers B, C, and D are too early in the day.
199. Answer D is correct. Cranberry juice is more alkaline and, when metabolized by the body, is excreted with acidic urine. Bacteria does not grow freely in acidic urine. Increasing intake of meats is not associated with urinary tract infections, so answer A is incorrect. The client does not have to avoid citrus fruits and pericare should be done, but hydrogen peroxide is drying, so answers B and C are incorrect.
200. Answer C is correct.
NPH insulin peaks in 8–12 hours, so a snack should be offered at that time. NPH insulin onsets in 90–120 minutes, so answer A is incorrect. Answer B is untrue because NPH insulin is time released and does not usually cause sudden hypoglycemia. Answer D is incorrect, but the client should eat a bedtime snack.
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