Friday, 20 October 2017

Download Staff Nurse Exam Modal Question Paper pdf -11 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Modal Question Paper pdf -11  with Answer


Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.

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Modal Question Paper -11 

Total Question -                      50 with Answer 

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Q. 1 Thousand ml of normal saline is to be infused in 8 hrs. What should  be the rate of flow per minute ?  

1. 15 drops  

2. 20 drops  

3. 30 drops  

4. 40 drops
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Q. 2 In report the  nurse’s is told that one of her patients has been ordered NPO after Midnight. The nurse should :-  

1. Offer frequent snacks 
2. Take away the water pitcher at midnight  
3. Note all water the patient drinks and all output  
4. Ask the patient if he is having any pain 
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Q. 3 A patient appears more pale than usual. The nurse should – 
1. Note it on the chart 
2. Offer a glass of water 
3. Ask the patient how he feels and take his vital signs immediately 
4. Get the patient a snacks
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Q. 4 What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the most accurate reading of jugular vein distention ? 
1. Supine position  
2. High fowler’s 
3. Raised 30 degrees 
4. Raised 10 degrees


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Q. 5 A patient who wishes to leave the hospital prior to completion of treatment – 
1. Must sign a release form before he/she leave. 
2. May do so only if the doctor agrees. 
3. Must be allowed to do so.
4. May not do so under any circumstances.


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Q. 6 Which organ of the body is involved in the process of respiration ? 
1. Brain  
2. Lungs 
3. Kidney 
4. Liver


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Q. 7 Gastric glands are present in the wall of – 

1. Oesophagus  
2. Small intestine 
3. Stomach  
4. Large intestine  


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Q. 8 The female hormone secreted from ovary is – 
1. Estrogen  
2. FSH 
3. LH 
4. All of the other options  


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Q. 9 Thyroid gland is located – 
1. Near the heart  
2. In the neck region  
3. At the base of the brain  
4. Between stomach and duodenum  


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Q. 10 In human each kidney has large numbers of filtration units called- 
1. Neutrons  
2. Neptune  
3. Nephrons  
4. Neurons


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Q. 11 Which is the power of the cell ? 
1. Mitochondria  
2. Golgi apparatus  
3. Lysosome  
4. Endoplasmic reticulum 


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Q. 12 Lifespan of human RBC is about______ days. 
1. 45 
2. 80 
3. 120 
4. 180


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Q. 13 Which one of the following viruses causes post transfusion hepatitis ? 
1. Hepatitis A  
2. Hepatitis B 
3. Hepatitis C 
4. Hepatitis D 


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Q. 14 Before giving blood transfusion, a nurse must note the date, time of collection and must be aware that packed RBC’s can be stored up to- 
1. 25 days 
2. 35 days  
3. 45 days 
4. 55 days 

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Q. 15 The causatic organism of cholera is :- 
1. Vibrio cholerae 
2. Clostidiumtetani  
3. Clostidiumwelchi  
4. Salmonella typhi


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Q. 16 Pre renal failures occur in :- 
1. Toxic nephropathy 
2. Nephrolithiasis  
3. Glomerulonephritis  
4. Heart Failure  


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Q. 17 Islets of Langerhans  are concentrated in which portion of pancreas ? 
1. Head  
2. Tail 
3. Uncinated process 
4. Body 


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Q. 18 H2 blocker of choice, in liver disease is :-  
1. Ranitidine  
2. Cimetidine 
3. Nizatidine  
4. Famotidine


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Q. 19 Which of the following drugs will be administered to treat Anaphylaxis ? 
1. Atropine  
2. Digoxin  
3. Epinephrine  
4. Sodium bicarbonate


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Q. 20 Digoxin should not be given if patient is having :- 
1. Tachycardia  
2. Hypotension  
3. Hypertension  
4. Bradycardia 


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Q. 21 Which among the following is a chemotherapeutic agent ? 
1. Mycostatin  
2. Cisplatin  
3. Trihexyphenydyl  
4. Chlorpromazine


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Q. 22 Which among the following is not a high risk factor for endometrial carcinoma ? 
1. Obesity  
2. Multiparity 
3. Diabetes  
4. Exogenous estrogen


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Q. 23 An active male patient who weighs 81.65 kg has undergone dietary instruction. The patient reports that his current diet consists of 60g of fat. 200mg of cholesterol. And 5g of sodium per day. What a nurse advises the patient to do ? 
1. Increase his cholesterol  
2. Increase his sodium  
3. Decrease his sodium  
4. Decrease his cholesterol  


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Q. 24 A technique used to assess language dominance and memory function before ablative surgery for epilepsy ? 
1. Magnetoencephalogram  
2. Intracarotid Amobarbital Procedure  

3. Visual evoked potential  
4. Somatosensory evoked potential


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Q. 25 Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a measure of – 
1. Level of Consciousness (LOC) 
2. Neurological assessment  
3. Intra cranial pressure(ICP)  
4. Fluid volume


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Q. 26 When a client sustains a deep partial-thickness burn because of severe sunburn. The nurse teaches that the best first aid measure is – 
1. Cool, Moist towels   
2. Dry, sterile dressings  
3. Analgesic sunburn spray  
4. Vitamin A and D ointment  


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Q. 27 Which is the most important test the nurse should check to determine whether a transplanted kidney is working ? 
1. WBC Cell count  
2. 24 hour urine output  
3. Serum creatinine level  
4. Renal ultrasound


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Q. 28  A client who just had a kidney transplant is transferred from the post anesthesia care unit to the intensive care unit (ICU). The nurse in the ICU should monitor the urinary output every – 
1. 15 minutes  
2. Hour 
3. 2 hours  
4. 3 hours


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Q. 29 A client has a total hip arthroplasty. After surgery, the nurse should –  
1. Log- roll the client when turning  
2. Keep an abduction pillow between the legs at all times 
3. Elevated the client’s affected limb on a pillow  
4. Place a trochanter roll along the entire extremity  


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Q. 30 Fever, headache, and nuchal rigidity are classic symptoms seen in – 
1. Meningitis  
2. Meningomyocele  
3. Alzheimer’s disease 
4. Parkinson’s disease 


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Q. 31 Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following procedures ? 
1. Coronary artery bypass surgery  
2. Oral medication administration  
3. Cardiac catheterization  
4. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty


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Q. 32 Pulse oximetry is used during endoscopic  procedure to – 
1. Monitor the depth of sedation  
2. Measure carbon dioxide retention levels 
3. Determine arterial blood oxygen saturation  
4. Reduce the required number of nursing staff  


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Q. 33 To maximize iron absorption; patients should be advised to take iron supplements – 
1. Before meals  
2. After meals  
3. At bed time  
4. With meals  



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Q. 34 Which hereditary disease is most closely linked to aneurysm ? 
1. Lupus erythematosus 
2. Marfan’s syndrome  
3. Myocardial infarction  
4. Cystic fibrosis


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Q. 35 What is the most appropriate nursing response to a myocardial infarction client who is fearful of dying ? 
1. “Please be assured we’re doing everything we can to make you feel better” 
2. “When the doctor arrives. Everything will be fine.” 
3. “Tell me about your feeling right now.” 
4. “This is a bad situation,but you;ll feel better soon.” 


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Q. 36 Who is considered as father of group therapy ? 
1. Joseph pratt 
2. Joseph Wolpe 
3. Sigmond Freud 
4. Aaron Bech


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Q. 37 A female client has a tonic- clonic  seizure. What is the priority nursing intervention given during the tonic-clonic stage of the seizer ? 
1. Turn her on her side  
2. Protect her from injury. 
3. Call for additional help. 
4. Establish a patent airway


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Q. 38 A client in a psychiatric hospital with the diagnosis of major depression is tearful and refuses to eat dinner after a visit with a friend. It is most therapeutic for the nurse to- 

1.     Allow the client to skip the meal.  
2. Offer the client the opportunity to discuss the visit. 
3. Provide adequate quite thinking time. 
4. Reinforce the importance of adequate nutrition  


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Q. 39 Which of the following is considered to be most effective and treatment of choice for phobic disorders ? 
1. Family therapy  
2. Psychoanalysis  
3. Behaviour therapy  
4. Interpersonal psychotherapy  


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Q. 40 A Psychotherapy technique effective in obsessive ruminations is – 
1. Sensitization  
2. Exposure  
3. Thought stopping  
4. Flooding


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Q. 41 Umbilical  cord contains - 
 1. The umbrella
 2. Placenta 
3. Allantoic artery and vein  
4. Discus proligerus


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Q. 42 The site of fertilization in human is :- 
1. Ovary  
2. Fallopian tube  
3. Vagina 
4. Uterus  


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Q. 43 It is suspected that a newborn may be developing respiratory distress  when the nurse observes- 1. Flaring nares  
2. Acrocyanosis 
3. Abdominal respiration  
4. Respirations of 40 breaths/min


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Q. 44 A pregnant client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulphate. What should the nurse keep at bedside to prepare for the possibility of magnesium sulphate toxicity ? 
1. Nalline  
2. Oxygen  
3. Suction equipment  
4. Calcium gluconate 


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Q. 45 Gonads develop from embryonic – 
1. Ectoderm  
2. Endoderm  
3. Mesoderm  
4. Both mesoderm and endoderm


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Q. 46 Location and secretion of Leyding cells are :- 
1. Ovary- estrogen  
2. Testis-testosterone 
3. Pancreas-glycogen  
4. Liver- cholesterol


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Q. 47 Freshly released human egg has – 
1. One Y- chromosome  
2. One X- chromosome 
3. Two X- chromosome 
4. One X- chromosome and one Y-chromosome 


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Q. 48 The nurse administers an intramuscular injection of vitamin K to a newborn. The purpose of the injection is to-  
1. Maintain the intestinal floral count 
2. Promote proliferation of intestine flora  
3. Stimulate vitamin K production in the baby  
4. Provide protection until intestinal flora is established.  


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Q. 49 After a sperm has entered on ovum . entry of other sperm is prevented by – 
1. Development of fertilization membrane  
2. Development of vitelline membrane  
3. Formation of pigment coat  
4. Condensation of the yolk


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Q. 50 Failure of testis to descend into the scrotum is called – 
1. Paedogenesis 
2. Cryptorchidism 
3. Impotency  
4. Castration  
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