Saturday, 10 February 2018

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15 with Answer





Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.


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[For Staff Nurse Exam Preparation]


Total No of Question - 50 Question with Answer 


➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 15 with Answer-





Q. 1. Vitamin A supplementation is given to children from the age of 1 to 6 years
for every-
A. 3 months
B. 6 Months
C. Yearly
D. 8 Months


Q. 2. Which micro-organism is associated with cervical cancer?
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Mylobacterium avium
D. Pheumocystis carinii


Q. 3. Normal percentage of carbohydrate in human milk is
A. 4%
B. 10%
C. 7%
D. 6%


Q. 4. A 4 years old female child vomited and her mother stated, “She vomited 200
ml of the formula feeding in this morning.” what type of data is this?
A. Objective data from a secondary source
B. Objective data from a primary source
C. Subjective data from a secondary source
D. Subjective data from a primary source


Q. 5. The nurse choose to assess an apical pulse instead of a radial pulse. Which of
the following client’s condition influenced the nurse’s decision?
A. The client had surgery 18 hrs before
B. The client has an arrhythmia
C. The client is in shock
D. A client’s response to orthostatic changes


Q. 6. Lactated Ringer’s solution is contraindicated in-
A. Hypervolemia
B. Burns
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Fluid loss as bile or diarrhea


Q. 7. ECG changes in Myocardial infarction is-
A. ST segment elevation
B. Wide ORS complex
C. Presence of U wave
D. Prolonged PR interval


Q. 8. Which of the following is not required to clot formation ?
A. Vit K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Fibrinogen


Q. 9. A menstrual condition characterized by severe and frequent menstrual cramps
and pain associated with menstruation is termed as -
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Amenorrhea
C. Hypermenorrhea
D. Polymenorrhea


Q. 10. Which precaution is used during phototherapy?
A. leave infant’s clothes on
B. Check the infant’s temperature once a day
C. Repositioning the infant frequently
D. Cover the infant’s eyes


Q. 11. Formula for IQ is =
A. IQ = MA/CA
B. IQ = MA/CA x 100
C. IQ = CA/MA x 100
D. IQ = CA/MA


Q. 12. Body temperature is regulated by -
A. Kidney
B. Lungs
C. Heart
D. Hypothalamus


Q. 13. Normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure is -
A. 110 -180 mm of H2O
B. 180-300 mm of H2O
C. 200- 400 mm of H2O
D. 5 – 10 mm of H2O

Q. 14. Another name for knee- chest position -
A. Genu–dorsal
B. Genu-pectoral
C. Lithotomy
D. Sim’s


Q. 15. The nurse should monitor the patients after the thrombolytic therapy for the
following adverse effects -
A. Chest pain
B. Cyanosis
C. Hemoptysis
D. Tachycardia


Q. 16. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by-
A. Vitamin B12 and folate
B. Protein deficiency
C. Thiamine deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency


Q. 17. Which one of the following is not a diuretic -?
A. Enalapril
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Furosemide


Q. 18. Pentavalent vaccine protects against -
A. DPT, Measles, Rubella
B. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis B.
C. DPT, Polio, Hepatitis A
D. DPT, haemophilus influenza-b, Hepatitis B


Q. 19. FSH is secreted by -
A. Ovary
B. Hypothalamus
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Posterior pituitary


Q. 20. The most common symptom of esophageal carcinoma would be -
A. Sore throat
B. Dysphagia
C. Weight loss
D. Haemorrhage


Q. 21. The cardinal sign of meningitis is -
A. Kernig’s sign
B. Diarrhea
C. Common cold
D. Fever


Q. 22. How many calories are there in 1 gm of fat?
A. 9 calories
B. 7 calories
C. 5 calories
D. 25 calories


Q. 23. Which nutrient helps in tissue repair?
A. Fat
B. Protein
C. Vitamin
D. Carbohydrate


Q. 24. Infective type of food poisoning -
A. Salmonella
B. Staphylococcus
C. Clostridium
D. coli


Q. 25. The most common pathologic findings in individuals at risk for sudden
cardiac death is -
A. Aortic valve disease
B. Mitral valve disease
C. Left ventricular dysfunction
D. Atherosclerotic heart disease


Q. 26. Low protein diet is ordered for patients with -
A. Anaemia
B. Acute nephritis
C. Burns
D. Gastritis


Q. 27. Sites for bone marrow examination include all except –
A. Sternum
B. Posterior superior iliac spine
C. Lumbar vertebrae
D. Femur


Q. 28. Bromhexine drugs are used for –
A. Leprosy
B. Acute myeloid leukaemia
C. Oesophagitis
D. To liquify respiratory secretions


Q. 29. Structures of the body that are responsible for conveying information /
message around the body are called -
A. Lymphocyte
B. Alveoli
C. Neurons
D. Nephrons


Q. 30. How many drops in a standard drip set makes one ml ?
A. 20
B. 16
C. 15
D. 10


Q. 31. Which of the following minerals should be taken by a child suffering from
Rickets?
A. Potassium
B. Calcium
C. Sodium
D. Iron


Q. 32. Heat application is contraindicated in appendicitis because it -
A. Can cause the appendix to rupture and cause peritonitis
B. Can mask symptoms of acute appendicitis
C. Will increase peristalsis throughout the abdomen
D. Will arrest progression of the disease


Q. 33. Kaposi’s sarcoma is associated with-
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Human T cell lymphocytic virus type (HTLV-1)
C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Epstein Barr virus


Q. 34. While instilling ear drops, the ear canal of an adult is straightened by pulling
the pinna -
A. Down and back
B. Up and back
C. Straight down
D. Straight back


Q. 35. Frozen DPT vaccine should be -
A. Shaken thoroughly before use
B. Allowed to melt before use
C. Discarded
D. Brought to room temperature before use


Q. 36. The most common cause of blindness in India is -
A. Cataract
B. Trachoma
C. Refractive errors
D. Vitamin deficiency


Q. 37. Human milk is rich in all, Except -
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin C
C. Iron
D. Vitamin E


Q. 38. Window period in HIV indicates -
A. Time period between infection and onset of the first symptom
B. Time period between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
C. Time period between infection and maximum multiplication of the causative
organism
D. None of the above


Q. 39. Islets of Langerhans produces -
A. Bile
B. Trypsin
C. Insulin
D. Rennin


Q. 40. The part of the brain, which is responsible for the coordination
of movement is -
A. Brain stem
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus


Q. 41. Anterior fontanelle normally closes between the ages -
A. 2 & 3 months
B. 12 & 18 months
C. 3 & 6 months
D. 1 &9 months


Q. 42. Which one of the following is a combined (triple) vaccine?
A. Oral polio
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. Rabies


Q. 43. Infection of the middle ear is called -
A. Sinusitis
B. Mastoiditis
C. Otitis media
D. Labyrinthitis


Q. 44. The process of development of a matured ovum is called -
A. Ovulation
B. Oophoria
C. Oogenesis
D. Oocyte


Q. 45. One teaspoonful of medicine is equal to -
A. 10 ml
B. 15 ml
C. 5 ml
D. 20 ml


Q. 46. Rods and cones are the structures of -
A. Middle ear
B. Eyes
C. Ovary
D. Lungs


Q. 47. The disease characterized by proteinuria, hypoproteinemia, diffuse edema,
high serum cholesterol and hyperlipidaemia –
A. Pyelonephritis
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute renal failure


Q. 48. Pertussis vaccine is contraindicated if the child has -
A. A history of convulsion
B. A history of juvenile diabetes
C. A history of jaundice
D. A history of tuberculosis


Q. 49. Vaccine contraindicated during pregnancy is -
A. Rubella
B. OPV
C. Tetanus
D. Influenza


Q. 50. Addison’s disease is otherwise called -
A. Acute adrenocortical insufficiency
B. Hyperpituitarism
C. Chronic adrenocortical insufficiency
D. Hyperaldosteronism


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