Friday, 11 May 2018

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 21 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 21 with Answer

Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam

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➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 21 with Answer


  •     [Total Questions - 50 with Answers]




Q. 01 The ischium has curved upper border is known as-
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. symphysis pubis
C. Iliac crest
D. iliac fossa


Q. 02 Which structure of ischium can be palpated vaginally in which fetus head come & fix?
A. Ischial tuberosity
B. Ischial spine
C. Ischial Ramus
D. Iliac crest.


Q. 03 The concave anterior surface of ilium bone is known as-
A. Iliac crest
B. Anterior superior spine
C. Iliac fossa
D. Iliac crest


Q. 05 What is the name of socket in which femurs head articulate with hip bone-
A. Acronium
B. Acetabulum
C. Xiphoid
D. Ischial tuberosity


Q. 06 Which part of iliac bone shows its dominancy when we place our hand on the
hip bone.-
A. Iliac crest
B. Iliac spine
C. Iliac fossa
D. Iliac foramen


Q. 07 A client’s blood gases reflect diabetic acidosis. The nurse should expect -
A. Increased p
B. Decreased PO2
C. Increased PCO2
D. Decreased HCO3


Q. 08 Insulin causes-----
A. Na+ Entry into cell
B. K+ Entry into cell
C. K+ entry & Exit into cell
D. K+ Exit from cell
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Q. 09 3 D’s (Diarrhoea, dementia, dermatitis) are the characteristic of ……deficiency
disorder.-
A. Niacin
B. Thiamine
C. Riboflavin
D. Biotin


Q. 10 Which female genital organ situated from vulva to uterus-
A. Cervix
B. Vagina
C. Isthmus
D. Clitoris


Q. 11 Over secretion of glucagon causes
A. Tetany
B. Diabetes Insipidus
C. Acromegaly
D. Glycosuria


Q. 12 Synthesis of glucose from non- carbohydrate source is referred as-
A. Glycolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glyconeogenesis
D. Glucogenesis


Q. 13 Hyposecretion of aldosterone causes-
A. Gulls disease
B. Graves’ disease
C. Cushing disease
D. Addison’s disease
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Q. 14 Which of the following is first aid hormoneA.
Vit. D
B. Catecholamines
C. Kinins
D. Thymopsin


Q. 15 Name the hormone used for induction of labor?
A. Estrogen
B. Cortisol
C. Oxytocin
D. Progesterone


Q. 16 Enlargement of thyroid gland occurs in:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Tumors of thyroid
D. All of the above


Q. 17 Hormones are:-
A. Produced in low amount
B. Easily diffusible
C. Non- antigenic
D. All of the above


Q. 18 The vitamin which works along with para thyroid hormone is-
A. Vit. C
B. Calciferol
C. Tocopherol
D. Vit. B 12
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Q. 19 Philips collip discovered which of the following hormone-
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Thyroxin
C. ADH
D. Oxytocin


Q. 20 “Secondary messenger” is-
A. ATP
B. DNA
C. Cyclic AMP
D. ADP


Q. 21 Which structure of blastocyst develop in to fetus-
A. Blastocoele
B. Trophoblast
C. ICM
D. placenta


Q. 22 First discovered hormone is-
A. Thyroxin
B. Secretin
C. Insulin
D. Adrenaline


Q. 23 Hyper secretion of STH leads to-
A. Dwarf & Acromegaly
B. Goiter & Sterility
C. Cretinism & Myxedema
D. Gigantism & Acromegaly


Q. 24 If amount of ADH decreased in blood, micturition:-
A. Remains unchanged
B. Decreased
C. Increased
D. None
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Q. 25 What is the HCG---?
A. High concentration of globulin
B. Human chorionic gomadotrophin
C. Human central gravitation.
D. Human chorionic gonadotrophin


Q. 26 In hashimoto's disease symptoms develop like-
A. Hposecretion of Adrenaline
B. Hypersecretion of thyroxin
C. Hposecretion of thyroxin
D. Hypersecretion of Adrenaline


Q. 27 Cushing’s Syndrome is a hormone disorder caused by high levels of what?
A. Y Chromosomes
B. Fiber in the digestive tract
C. Cortisol in the blood
D. Unprotected sexual contact


Q. 28 The nurse is evaluating nutritional outcomes for an elderly client with anorexia
nervosa. Which data best indicates that the plan of care is effective?
A. The client selects a balanced diet from the menu
B. The clients hematocrit improves
C. The clients tissue turgor improves
D. The client gains gait


Q. 29 A nurse is reviewing the record of a client in the labor room and notes that the
nurse midwife has documented that the fetus is at -1 station. The nurse determines that
the fetal presenting part is:
A. 1 inch below the coccyx
B. 1 inch below the iliac crest
C. 1 cm above the ischial spine
D. 1 fingerbreadth below the symphysis pubis
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Q. 30 An important intervention in monitoring the dietary compliance of a client with bulimia is:
A. Allowing the client privacy during mealtimes
B. Praising her for eating all her meal
C. Observing her for 1-2 hours after meals
D. Encouraging her to choose foods she likes and to eat in moderation


Q. 31 The nurse is caring for a client following the removal of a central line catheter
when the clientsuddenly develops dyspnea and complains of substernal chest pain.
The client is noticeably confused and fearful. The nurse should suspect which
complication of central line use?
A. Myocardial infraction
B. Air embolus
C. Intrathoracic bleeding
D. Vagal response
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Q. 32 DIRECTIONS: Select the related letters from the given alternatives.
LOM : NMK :: PKI : ?
A. RIH
B. SHG
C. RIG
D. RHG


Q. 33 What is the function of blood platelets?
A. Carry haemoglobin
B. Aid in coagulation of blood
C. Ingest bacteria
D. Transport CO2


Q. 34 A client with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria,
polydipsia, and mental confusion. The priority intervention for this client is:
A. Measure the urinary output
B. Check the vital signs
C. Encourage increased fluid intake
D. Weigh the client


Q. 35 Which of the following meal selections is appropriate for the client with celiac
disease?
A. Toast, jam, and apple juice
B. Peanut butter cookies and milk
C. Rice krispies bar and milk
D. Cheese pizza and kool-Aid


Q. 36 A pregnant client with diabetes mellitus arrives at the health care clinic for a
follow-up visit. What priority assessment should the nurse monitor?
A. Urine for specific gravity
B. For the presence of edema
C. Urine for glucose and ketones
D. Blood pressure, pulse and respirations


Q. 37 During which of the following stages of labour would the nurse assess
‘crowning’
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
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Q. 38 The client is taking rifampin 600 mg PO daily to treat his tuberculosis. Which
action by the nurse indicates understanding of the medication?
A. Telling the client that the medication will need to be taken with juice
B. Telling the client that the medication will change the colour of the urine
C. Telling the client to take the medication before going to bed at night
D. Telling the client to take medication if the night sweats occur


Q. 39 A client with hemophilia has nosebleed. Which nursing action is most
appropriate to control the bleeding?
A. Place the client in a sitting position with the head hyper extended
B. Pack the nares tightly with gauze to apply pressure to the source of bleeding
C. Pinch the soft lower part of the nose for a minimum 5 minutes
D. Apply ice packs to the forehead and back of the neck


Q. 40 The nurse is planning dietary changes for a client following an episode of
pancreatitis. Which diet is suitable for the client?
A. Low calorie, low carbohydrate
B. High calorie, low fat
C. High protein, high fat
D. Low protein, high carbohydrate
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Q. 41 A client is at 35 weeks of gestation calls the nurse at the clinic and reports a
sudden discharge of fluid from the vagina. Based on the data provided, the suspects
which of the following conditions?
A. Miscarriage
B. Preterm labor
C. Intrauterine fetal demise
D. Premature rupture of the membranes


Q. 42 A client with a c6 spinal cord injury 2 months ago now complains of a
pounding headache. The pulse is 64 and the blood pressure is 220/110mmhg. Which
of the following action should the nurse take first?
A. Give analgesic as ordered
B. Check for fecal impaction
C. Elevate the client’s head and lower the legs
D. Notify the physician


Q. 43 A nurse plans to assess a client for the vegetative signs of depression. The nurse
assesses for these signs by determining the clients:
A. Level of self-esteem
B. Level of suicidal ideation
C. Ability to think, concentrate and make rational decisions
D. Appetite, weight, sleep patterns and psychomotor activity


Q. 44 A nurse is caring for an infant who is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis
of haemolytic disease. The nurse reviews the laboratory results, expecting to note
which of the following in this infant?
A. Decreased bilirubin count
B. Elevated blood glucose level
C. Decreased RBC count
D. Decreased white blood cell count


Q. 45 A client had arterial blood gases drawn. The results are a pH of 7.34, a partial
pressure of carbon dioxide of 37 mm Hg, a partial pressure of oxygen of 79 mm Hg
and a bicarbonate level of 19 mEq/L. the nurse interprets that the client is
experiencing:
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
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Q. 46 At 28-30 weeks gestation where would you expect to find the uterine fundus?
A. Umbilicus
B. Xiphisternum
C. Symphysis pubis
D. Half way between umbilicus and xiphisternum


Q. 47 The nursing care plan is_______
A. A written guideline for implementation and evaluation
B. A documentation of client care
C. A projection of potential alterations in client behaviors
D. A tool to set goals and project outcomes


Q. 48 In an examination a candidate who got 30% of the total marks failed by 8
marks. Another candidate who got 35% got 12 marks more than the passing marks.
Total marks are
A. 500
B. 400
C. 800
D. 300
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Q. 49 Tunica adventitia is a part of –
A. Blood vessels
B. Testes
C. Scrotum
D. Kidney


Q. 50 A nurse is preparing to administer a chemotherapeutic agent via intraperitoneal
therapy. In which position should the nurse plan to place the client before
administering this therapy?
A. Supine
B. Semi-fowler’s
C. Trendelenburg’s
D. Dorsal recumbent






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