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Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF

Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF-

Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF . ESIC Conduct Nursing Officer Grade- II Recruitment Exam on 2004 Exam . The Exam was Held on 2004 . Now You Can Download this Question Paper PDF with Answer Keys  from Our Website . Download Link are given below

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➤Download ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2004 Question Paper PDF-

1. Which of the following is a common symptom of active tuberculosis?
a. Marked weight loss
b. Dyspnea on exertion
c. Mental status changes
d. Constipation

2. The most common symptoms of hypoglycemia are:
a. Nervousness and diaphoresis
b. Anorexia and incoherent speech
c. Kussmaul’s respiration and confusion
d. Bradycardia and blurred vision

3. Which vitamin is called as “Beauty vitamin-
a. Vit K
b. Vit D
c. Vit C
d. Vit E

4. Progesterone is secreted by:
a. Corpus Luteum
b. Corpus albicans
c. Pituitary gland
d. Graafian cells

5. Cessation of menstrual cycle is called:
a. Ovulation
b. Puberty
c. Menopause
d. Implantation

6. Hormones are produced by:
a. Exocrine glands
b. Endocrine glands
c. Holocrine glands
d. Apocrine glands

7. Islets of Langerhans are present in :
a. Brain
b. Stomach
c. Ovary
d. Pancreas

8. The male sex hormone is called:
a. Vasopressin
b. Gonadotropic hormone
c. FSH
d. Testosterone

9. Number of spinal nerves in man are:
a. 11 pairs
b. 12 pairs
c. 31 pairs
d. 33 pairs

10. The function of choroid plexus is:
a. To produce lymph
b. To produced blood
c. To produce cerebrospinal fluid
d. To produce endolymph

11. The cerebellum is concerned with:
a. Co-ordination of muscular movements
b. Perception
c. Memory
d. Vision

12. The commonest cause of CVA is:
a. Cerebral hemorrhage
b. Cerebral thrombosis
c. Cerebral embolism
d. Cerebral Spasm

13. The PH of fresh urine is about:
a. 7.1
b. 5.0
c. 8.4
d. 9.9

14. Rh factor can produce:
b. Erythroblastosis fetalis
c. Turners syndrome
d. Sickle cell anemia

15. Pulse pressure is:
a. Diastolic pressure
b. Systolic Pressure
c. Differences between systolic and diastolic pressure
d. Pressure in pulmonary terms.

16. Edema is due to:
a. Increased permeability of capillary walls
b. Reduced return of lymph
c. Increased capillary pressure
d. All of the above.

17. Removal of gall bladder in man could lead to:
a. Impairment of fat digestion
b. Impairment of digestion of protein
c. Jaundice
d. Increased acidity in intestine.

18. Loss of appetite, gastrointestinal disorders and muscular weakness are deficiency symptoms of:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

19. Largest gland in human body is
a. Liver
b. Thyroid
c. Pituitary
d. Pancreas

20. The blood vessel in which the oxygen content is highest in the fetus is:
a. Aorta
b. Umbilical Vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Inferior Venacava

21. India’s National Health Policy was approved in the parliament in:
a. 1961
b. 1980
c. 1983
d. 1991

22. The measure of health status of children in a community is:
a. Infant mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Crude birth rate
d. Crude death rate

23. Which of the following food constituents are more required by pregnant woman?
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Potassium
d. Vitamin C

24. An ante-natal mother is ordered to have a diet that contains 90 grams of protein each day. How many calories will the protein contribute to her daily weight?
a. 180 calories
b. 360 calories
c. 540 Calories
d. 810 calories

25. The antidote of magnesium sulphate is
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Diazepam
c. Calcium Chloride
d. Nalorphine hydrochloride

26. The approximate volume of blood at birth is:
a. 60 ml/ kg. body weight
b. 85 ml/ kg. body weight
c. 110 ml/ kg. body weight
d. 125 ml/ kg. body weight

27. Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate salicylate toxicity
a. Chest pain
b. Pink colored urine
c. Slow pulse rate
d. Ringing in ears

28. Urinary bladder is line with:
a. Simple epithelium
b. Stratified epithelium
c. Transitional Epithelium
d. Pseudo stratified epithelium

29. Sprain is due to pulling of:
a. Muscles
b. Tendons
c. Ligaments
d. Nerves

30. Rickets is due to deficiency of:
a. Vitamin D
b. Vitamin A
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin C

31. Which of the following is a mechanical method of contraception?
a. Vasectomy
b. Mala-D
c. Condom
d. M.T.P

32. Kartar Singh Committee is otherwise known as:
a. Multipurpose workers committee
b. Health Survey and development Committee
c. health Survey and planning committee
d. Committee on medical education.

33. Which of the following drugs has not been used in the treatment of leprosy?
a. Streptomycin
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazimine
d. I.N.H.

34. Which of the following is a potassium sparing diuretic?
a. Frusemide
b. Aldactone
c. mannitol
d. Diamox

35. The position most suited for an unconscious patient is:
a. Fowlers position
b. Prone position
c. Supine position
d. Semi-prone position.

36. Temperature of water for preparing hot water bag is:
a. 60-650 C
b. 65-700 C
c. 70-750 C
d. 90-1000 C

37. 390 C is equal to-
a. 100.20 F
b. 102.20 F
c. 101.20 F
d. 103.20 F

38. Sand bags are used to prevent-
a. Foot drop
b. Wrist drop
c. Internal rotation of thigh
d. All of the above.

39. Hemoptysis is:
a. Blood in urine
b. Blood in vomitus
c. Blood in sputum
d. Blood in feces

40. For continuous oxygen administration for a longer period, the nasal catheter should be changed-
a. Every 6 hours
b. Every 12 hours
c. Every 24 hours
d. Every 48 hours

41. The causative organism of dengue fever is-
a. Enterovirus
b. Arbovirus
c. Variola virus
d. Influenza virus

42. The desired quantity of free residual chlorine in drinking water is:
a. 1 mg./lit,
b. 0.5 mg./lit
c. 2 mg./lit
d. 0.25 mg./lit.

43. The vitamin which is involved in fat, protein and carbohydrate metabolism-
a. Riboflavin
b. folic acid
c. niacin
d. thiamine

44. The hormonal contraceptives are:
a. Oral
b. injectable
c. Implant
d. All of the above

45. Poliomyelitis is transmitted through:
a. Water
b. Air
c. Blood
d. Vectors

46. MCH service includes:
a. Pre-natal and post-natal care
b. Under-fives care
c. Family planning service
d. All of the above

47. The recommended maximum noise level for human beings:
a. 86dB
b. 50dB
c. 110 dB
d. 160dB

48. The best method of refuse disposal in a hospital is:
a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping
c. Incineration
d. Composting

49. MTP Act was passed in the year:
a. 1983
b. 1977
c. 2000
d. 1972

50. The maximum amount of blood loss during delivery that is considered to be within normal limit is approximately:
a. 100 ml
b. 300ml
c. 500ml
d. 700 ml.

51. The most frequent cause of maternal death during child birth is:
a. Sepsis
b. Toxemia
c. Asphyxia
d. Hemorrhage

52. Mrs. Mary’s L.M.P. (Last menstrual period) was on July 13th 2003. Her expected date of delivery is:
a. March 6th 2004
b. March 20th 2004
c. April 6th 2004
d. April 20th 2004.

53. The unit of measure commonly used to describe effacement of cervix is:
a. Decimal
b. Percentage
c. Centimeter
d. Finger breadth

54. Mrs. Leela has placenta previa. The most likely symptom she will present is:
a. Painless bleeding
b. a broad like abdomen
c. Intermittent pain with spotting
d. A dull pain in the lower abdomen.

55. Which of the following combination of blood types is most likely to produce hemolytic disease of the new born?
a. –ve mother and +ve father
b. +ve mother and –ve father
c. –ve mother and –ve father
d. +ve mother and –ve father.

56. The vein which will most likely be used to give exchange transfusion in the
a. Jugular vein
b. Femoral vein
c. Temporal vein
d. Umbilical vein

57. Which of the following is not an occupational disease?
a. Asbestosis
b. Pneumoconiosis
c. Japanese encephalitis
d. Silicosis

58. Carbohydrate is stored in the liver as:
a. Glucose
b. Sucrose
c. Glycogen
d. Galactose

59. The normal serum potassium level is:
a. 2.5 to 4.5m. Eq./L
b. 3.0 to 5.0m. Eq./L
c. 3.5 to 5.5m Eq./L
d. 4.0 to 5.5m. Eq./L

60. Which of the following symptoms might indicate that a client is developing tetany following subtotal thyroidectomy-
a. Backache
b. Hoarseness
c. Dyspnea
d. Tingling in the fingers

61. The master gland of the body is-
a. Liver
b. Pituitary
c. Thyroid
d. Adrenal

62. Causative organism of Malaria is:
a. Cryptococcosis
b. Leishmania
c. Plasmodium
d. Klebsiella

63. Sepsis means:
a. Absence of infection
b. Presence of pathogenic organisms
c. Destruction of pathogenic organisms
d. Infection in the blood

64. Father of Antiseptic Surgery
a. Joseph Lister
b. Louis Pasteur
c. William Harvey
d. Ronald Ross

65. Vaccines and toxoids produce-
a. Natural immunity
b. Active immunity
c. Passive immunity
d. Acquired immunity

66. One gram of fat yields:
a. 9 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 8 calories
d. 4 calories

67. Anti-sterility vitamin is:
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin K

68. Where is the vomiting center located?
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Medulla Oblongata
d. Diencephalon

69. The most common complication that an occur after renal biopsy is:
a. Infection
b. Tenderness
c. Renal failure
d. Hemorrhage

70. Which of the following is a side effect of Morphine?
a. Increased blood pressure
b. Decreased respiratory rate
c. Reduced mucus secretion
d. Visual disturbance.

71. Koplik’s spot is seen in:
a. Chicken box
b. Measles
c. Mumps
d. Variola

72. Which of the following vitamin deficiency results in scurvy?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B
c. Vitamin D
d. vitamin A

73. An example of congenital cyanotic heart disease is-
a. Rheumatic heart disease
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Tetralogy of Fallot

74. Approximate time for introduction of solid food in the diet of a child is-
a. 1-3 months
b. 5-6 months
c. 6-8 months
d. 10-12 months.

75. Expected time of closure of anterior fontanel is-
a. 4-6 weeks
b. 6-8 months
c. 9-2 months
d. 16-18 months

76. Wilm’s tumor is a condition affecting-
a. Kidney
b. Bone
c. Blood
d. Brain stem

77. Which of the following is the reason for chest pain associated with myocardial infarction?
a. Decreased oxygen in heart muscle
b. Left ventricular overload
c. Circulatory collapse
d. Electrolyte imbalance

78. Which of the following would be a priority assessment for a client receiving blood transfusion?
a. Urine output
b. Skin turgor
c. Anaphylactic reaction
d. Level of consciousness

79. Which of the following symptoms must be reported to the doctor by a patient receiving warfarin?
a. Hematuria
b. Constipation
c. Dyspnea
d. Pruritus

80. In a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis, which of the following signs indicate peritonitis?
a. Swelling in the legs
b. Redness at the catheter insertion site
c. Poor drainage of the dialysate fluid
d. Cloudy dialysate fluid

81. Non-invasive method of oxygen saturation monitoring can be done by-
a. Arterial blood gas studies
b. Capillary blood gas studies
c. Venoclysis
d. Pulse Oximetry

82. Drug of choice for respiratory depression in a new born whose mother received morphine during labour-
a. Naloxone
b. Digoxin
c. Lidocaine
d. Adrenalin

83. Immunization against DPT should be administered via-
a. Oral route
b. Intramuscular route
c. Subcutaneous route
d. Intra dermal route

84. Which of the following is a typical sign of tracheoesophageal fistula?
a. Continuous drooling
b. Diaphragmatic breathing
c. Slow response to stimuli
d. Passage of frothy meconium

85. Best method of oxygen administration in a two months old baby is via-
a. Oxyhood
b. Oxygen mask
c. Nasal canula
d. Nasal prongs

86. Absence of ganglion cells in colon is a feature of-
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Hirschsprung’s disease
c. Anorectal malformation
d. Reye’s Syndrome

87. A four years old child is having a weight of 7.8 kg. To which grade of protein
energy malnutrition does this child belong-
a. Grade I
b. Grade II
c. Grade III
d. Grade IV

88. Gastric lavage is contraindicated after ingestion of which of the following-
a. Aspirin
b. Paracetamol
c. Corrosive alkali
d. Odolum

89. In an underwater seal drainage system cessation of fluid fluctuation in the drainage tubes generally means that-
a. Lung has fully expanded
b. Lung has collapsed
c. Mediastinal space has decreased
d. Chest tubes is in the pleural space

90. Which of the following is a complication associated with the presence of tracheostomy tube?
a. Pneumothorax
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Tracheomalacia
d. Damage to laryngeal nerve

91. What is the compression ventilation ratio for two rescuer CPR in adult?
a. 4:2
b. 5:1
c. 5:2
d. 15:2

92. Which of the following be the best indication that fluid replacement for the client in hypovolemic shock is adequate-
a. Skin feels warm
b. Systolic B.P above 100 mmHg
c. Diastolic B.P above 90 mmHg
d. Urine output greater than 30 ml/hr.

93. Which of the following is the best technique to determine whether a nasogastric tube is positioned in the stomach?
a. Irrigating with normal saline
b. Aspirating with syringe for gastric contents
c. Placing free end of tube in water
d. Instilling air and auscultating over epigastric area

94. Patients with upper abdominal surgery are advised to use an incentive spirometer during the post-operative period in order to-
a. Stimulate circulation
b. Prepare for ambulation
c. Strengthen abdominal muscles
d. Increase respiratory effectiveness

95. Which of the following test result is useful to assess the liver function?
a. Glucose tolerance test
b. Creatine clearance test
c. Serum transaminase
d. Serum electrolytes

96. World No Tobacco Day is observed on-
a. 5th June
b. 31st May
c. 10th August
d. April 7th

97. Which of the following manifestations indicate that client with cirrhosis is developing hepatic encephalopathy?
a. Change in vital sings
b. Altered level of consciousness
c. Change in respiratory status
d. Decreased urine output

98. A normal local tissue response to radiation is-
a. Atrophy of the skin
b. Scattered pustule formation
c. Redness of surface tissue
d. Sloughing of two layers of skin

99. Automatic rhythmic contractility is the characteristic of-
a. Cardiac tissue
b. Nervous tissue
c. Connective tissue
d. Epithelial tissue

100. World Heart Day is observed on-
a. 21 September
b. 28 September
c. 10 October
d. 14 August

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