Uttarakhand State Govt M.Sc. Nursing Entrance Exam 2016 Question Paper PDF


Download Uttarakhand State Govt M.Sc. Nursing Entrance Exam 2016 Question Paper PDF

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Q.01 Quarantine is related to:
A. Minimum incubation period
B. Maximum incubation period
C. Serial interval
D. Generation time



Q.02 Which of the following is not spread by Aedes mosquito:
A. Dengue fever
B. Chikungunya
C. Japanese encephalitis
D. Yellow fever



Q.03 The First Time interval between the invasion by an infectious agent and appearance of the first signs and symptoms of the disease:
A. Latent period
B. Quarantine
C. Incubation period
D. Termination period



Q.04 Study which proceed from effect to cause is:
A. Cohort
B. Case control
C. Ecological
D. Experimental



Q.05 A sub center in a hilly area caters to a population of:
A. 1000
B. 2000
C. 3000
D. 5000





Q.06 Common cause of mid trimester abortion is:
A. Infection
B. Cervical incompetence
C. Congenital anomalies in fetus
D. Hormonal imbalance in mother





Q.07 The relationship of the long axis of fetus to the long axis of the uterus is:
A. Attitude
B. Presentation
C. Lie
D. Denominator



Q.08 In a gynecoid pelvis widest diameter of inlet is:
A. Antero-posterior diameter
B. Transverse diameter
C. Oblique diameter
D. All diameters are equal



Q.09 Increases level of HCG hormone is indication of:
A. Placenta previa
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Polyhydramnios
D. PIH



Q.10 The micro-organism which causes vaginitis commonly is:
A. Candida albicans
B. Streptococci
C. E. coli
D. Lactobacillus




Q.11 Milk is rich in all except:
A. Vitamin A
B. Calcium
C. Iron
D. Vitamin E



Q.12 The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of chronic gastritis. The nurse knows that this client is at risk for which of the following vitamin deficiencies?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin E



Q.13 One gram fat provides how many calories?
A. 3 calories
B. 4 calories
C. 6 calories
D. 9 calories



Q.14 Which of the following is a deficiency disease of vitamin A?
A. Pellagra
B. Scurvy
C. Pernicious Anemia
D. Night Blindness



Q.15 The process of selecting a portion of the population to represent the entire
population.
A. Subset
B. Delimitation
C. Sampling
D. Categorizing





Q.16 A nurse is assisting a physician with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse most appropriately instructs the client to:
A. Stay very still
B. Inhale and exhale quickly
C. Exhale slowly
D. Perform Valsalva’s maneuver



Q.17 A parametric statistical test for analyzing the difference between two means is called:
A. ANOVA
B. t-test
C. Standard deviation
D. Chi square



Q.18 You are interested to study the effects of medication and tactile stimulation on the pain experienced by the cancer patients. What type of variable is pain?
A. Dependent
B. X variable
C. Independent
D. Interdependent



Q.19 Which of the following studies is based on the qualitative research?
A. A study examining client’s reaction to stress after open heart surgery
B. A study measuring weight loss/gain in clients with cancer
C. A study examining oxygen levels after endotracheal suctioning
D. A study measuring differences in blood pressure before, during and after a
procedure





Q.20 Which of the following design is best suited for a study for the development of a new tool to measure intelligence by crating a 100 item questionnaire?
A. Historical
B. Methodological
C. Survey
D. Case study





Q.21 A client with paranoid schizophrenia is expected to present with:
A. Anger, auditory hallucination, persecutory delusion
B. Abnormal motor activity, frequent posturing, autism
C. Flat affect, anhedonia, alogia
D. Silly behavior, poor personal hygiene, incoherent speech



Q.22 SSRI’s may cause:
A. Gastro-intestinal upset
B. Hypertensive crisis
C. Neuromuscular effects
D. Urinary retention





Q.23 A nurse is caring for a client with type I diabetes mellitus Which client
complaint would alert the nurse to the presence of a possible hypoglycemic
reaction? ¦
A. Hot, dry skin
B. Muscle cramps
C. Anorexia
D. Tremors



Q.24 A client is diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, the nurse understands the
pheochromocytoma is a condition that:
A. Causes profound hypotension
B. Causes the release of excessive amounts of catechol-amines.
C. Is not curable and is treated symptomatically
D. Is manifested by severe hypoglycemia



Q.25 A nurse develops a plan of care for a client with hyperthyroidism and includes which of the following in the plan?
A. Provide small meals
B. Provide extra blanket
C. Provide a high-fiber diet
D. Provide a restful environment


Q.26 The nurse inspects the oral cavity of a client with candidiasis. Which of the
following would the nurse expect to note?
A. The presence of numerous small red pinpoint lesions
B. The presence of blisters
C. The presence of white patches
D. The presence of purple colored patches



Q.27 Pertussis is also known as:
A. TB
B. Pneumonia
C. Whooping cough
D. Measles



Q.28 Discharge teaching for a child with celiac disease would include instructions
about avoiding which of the following:
A. Rice
B. Milk
C. Wheat
D. Meat



Q.29 Neuroleptic malignant syndrome can occur due to side effect of:
A. Anti-anxiety
B. Anti-depressants
C. Anti-Psychotics
D. Anti-Parkinson



Q.30 While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis, the nurse is likely to note which of the following?
A. Regurgitation
B. Steatorrhea
C. Projectile vomiting
D. “Currant jelly” stools





Q.31 Which method is used to make the learners study in detail about specific thing, person or place? |
A. Case study method
B. Project method
C. Field trip method
D. Laboratory method



Q.32 Which method is used to develop scientific inquiry among learners?
A. Project
B. Case study
C. Problem solving
D. Simulation



Q.33 In palpating the client’s abdomen, which of the following is the best position for the client to assume?
A. Side lying
B. Supine
C. Lithotomy
D. Dorsal recumbent



Q.34 A type of educational assessment which is generally carried out throughout a course or project is:
A. Summative assessment
B. Formative assessment
C. Criterion-referenced assessment
D. Normal assessment





Q.35 Considered as safest and most non-invasive method of temperature taking:
A. Rectal
B. Tympanic
C. Axillary
D. Oral



Q.36 What is teaching through deductive method?
A. From general to specific
B. From specific to general
C. From macro to micro
D. From easy to difficulty



Q.37 The ability of an instrument to achieve consistently the same result is:
A. Validity of instrument
B. Reliability of the instrument li
C. Understandability of the instrument
D. Perfectionalism of the instrument



Q.38 In putting sterile gloves, which should be gloved first?
A. The dominant hand
B. The non-dominant hand
C. The left hand
D. No specific order, it’s up to the nurse for her own convenience





Q.39 The suggested time per hand on hand washing using the time method is:
A. 5 to 10 seconds each hand
B. 10 to 15 seconds each hand U
C. 15 to 30 seconds each hand
D. 30 to 60 seconds each hand




Q.40 Which of the following method where subject matter It broken down Into
small frames and arranged sequentially?
A. Simulation
B. Programmed instructions
C. lecture
D. Demonstration



Q.41 Scientific management theory was developed by:
A. Max weber
B. Frederick Taylor
C. Adam smith
D. Renlsllkert



Q.42 Collaboration In providing care to a group of patients by a group of nursing
personnel under the direction of a professional nurse Is:
A. Case method.
B. Primary method
C. Team methods
D. Modular method



Q.43 Which of the following Involves all the assessment methods that occur after the patient has been discharged:
A. Concurrent evaluation
B. Auditing
C. Retrospective evaluation
D. Quality assurance



Q.44 The four main concepts common to nursing that appear in each of the current conceptual models are:
A. Person, nursing, environment, medicine
B. Person, nutrition, nursing, support systems
C. Person, health, environment, nursing
D. Environment, Most, Person, Hygiene





Q.45 The phrase used in nursing diagnosis which is linked to the etiology is:
A. “as manifested by”
B. “related to”
C. “evidenced by”
D. “due to”



Q.46 The theorist who advocated that health Is the ability to maintain dynamic
equilibrium is:
A. Bernar
B. Selye
C. Cannon
D. Rogers



Q.47 The third period of Infectious processes characterized by development of specific signs and symptoms:
A. fitness period
B. Incubation period
C. Prodromal period
D. Convalescent period



Q.48 Self-monitoring of blood glucose for diabetic clients is on what level of
prevention?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. None of the above



Q.49 Comprehensive, individualized care provided by the same nurse throughout the period of care refers to :
A. Team nursing
B. Primary nursing
C. Home Health Nursing
D. Critical care nursing




Q.50 The nurse notes a swelling on the neonate’s scalp that crosses the suture line. This condition is known as:
A. Cephalic hematoma
B. Caput succedaneum
C. Hemorrhage edema
D. Perinatal caput



Q.51 The stage of growth and development basically concerned with the role
identification is the:
A. Oral stage
B. Genital-stage
C. Oedipal stage
D. Latency stage



Q.52 Massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia & edema are
presentations of which of the following?
A. Pyloric stenosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Jaundice
D. Sickle cell anemia



Q.53 John has a fever of 39.5 degrees 2 days ago, But yesterday, he has a normal temperature of 36.5 degrees. Today, his temperature again surges to 40 degrees. What type of fever is he having?
A. Relapsing
B. Intermittent
C. Remittent
D. Constant





Q.54 The primary factor responsible for body heat production is the:
A. Metabolism
B. Release of thyroxin
C. Muscle activity
D. Stress



Q.55 I.C.D.S. Scheme was started in which year:
A. 1965
B. 1970
C. 1975
D. 1985



Q.56 What is the genetic etiology of cystic fibrosis?
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive.
C. Y chromosome linked
D. Spontaneous mutation



Q.57 A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth may indicate which of the following- 
A. Hirschsprung disease
B. Celiac disease
C. Intussusception
D. Hernia



Q.58 According to national immunization schedule, inactivated polio vaccine is
anew initiative. When you are supposed to give the dose of 1PV?
A. Along with Measles
B. Along with BCG
C. Along with typhoid
D. Along with third dose of OPV



Q.59 New cases in a community during a fixed period is determined by:
A. Incidence Rate
B. Prevalence Rate
C. Endemic rate
D. Epidemic rate



Q.60 The best method of delivery system to provide care for comatose patients is:
A. Case method
B. Function method
C. Case and function method
D. Function and team method



Q.61 Which of the following means translating the message into verbal and non
verbal symbols to communicate the receiver :
A. Encoding
B. Decoding
C. Channel
D. Feedback



Q.62 Which of the following styles best when the followers are self-directed,
experts and are matured individuals?
A. Democratic
B. Authoritarian
C. Laissez faire
D. Bureaucratic



Q.63 Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses path goal theory?
A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them itations
B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own active
C. Admonishes staff for being laggards
D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non performance



Q.64 Manager stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and
instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which of the following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command
D. Order



Q.65 Ramdas orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship in the
organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit de corps
D. Unity of direction



Q.66 Quality council of India sponsored accreditation system for hospitals and
health care providers is:
A. NABH
B. Joint commission international
C. BIS
D. NABET



Q.67 Manager asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?
A. Proactive and caring with one another
B. Competitive and perfectionist
C. Powerful and uncomplaining
D. Obedient and uncomplaining



Q.68 Finding the most cost effective way of doing a project:
A. Network analysis
B. System analysis
C. Cost analysis
D. Field analysis



Q.69 In the value: 80,81,82,90,100,102 what is the mode?
A. 80
B. 82
C. 90
D. 85



Q.70 In which of the following sampling technique every member of population has an equal chance of being selected as subject?
A. Simple random
B. Purposive
C. Convenient
D. Quota





Q.71 One group pre test-post test design is a type of:
A. True experimental
B. Pre-experimental
C. Descriptive design
D. Comparative design



Q.72 Which of the following is a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Urinary frequency
C. Breast tenderness
D. Fetus seen on ultrasound



Q.73 Extra calorie intake recommended for lactating mothers is:
A. 300 Kcal/day
B. 400 Kcal/day
C. 550 Kcal/day
D. 800 Kcal/day



Q.74 Intake of which of the following can prevent neural tube detect?
A. Folic acid
B. Thiamine
C. Niacin
D. Riboflavin



Q.75 Which of the following is an abnormal finding in normal pregnancy?
A. Fundus at umbilicus at 36 weeks
B. Fundus at xiphisternum at 36 weeks
C. Mother felt quickening at 18 weeks
D. Fundal height increase 4 cm per week after 24 weeks





Q.76 Development of specific antibody in an Rh-positive baby is:
A. Autoimmunization
B. Isoimmunization
C. Isometricity
D. Antigenicity



Q.77 Which of the following is a measurement of central tendency?
A. Mean
B. Standard deviation
C. Range
D. Correlation coefficient



Q.78 The Hypotheses express the absence of relationships:
A. Directional
B. Null
C. Reverse
D. Non-directional





Q.79 What is the effect if hypothyroidism on BMR?
A. BMR Increases
B. BMR Decreases
C. BMR unchanged
D. BMR initially increases but later decreases



Q.80 Which substance has the most significant effect on sodium regulation?
A. Renin level
B. Aldosterone level
C. GFR
D. Serum pH



Q.81 The nurse should realize the angina pectoris is e sign of:
A. Mitral Insufficiency
B. Myocardial Infarction
C. Myocardial ischemia
D. Coronary thrombosis



Q.82 Among the following statements, should be given the HIGHEST priority?
A. Client with extreme pain
B. Client with blood pressure 60/40 mmHg
C. Client with temperature 40 degree Celsius
D. Client with cyanosis





Q.83 Which of the following is an OBJECTIVE data?
A. Blue nails
B. Dizziness
C. Chest pain
D. Anxiety



Q.84 Which of the following statement Is TRUE about pulse?
A. Males have higher pulse rate than females after puberty
B. Young person have higher pulse than older persons
C. In lying position, pulse rate is higher
D. Pulse rate decreases during exercises



Q.85 A type of heat loss that occurs when the heat is dissipated by air current:
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation



Q.86 Drug of choice In OCD:
A. Diazepam
B. Haloperidol
C. Trihexyphenidyls
D. Fluoxetine



Q.87 Long acting antipsychotic:
A. Haldol decanoate
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Olanzapine
D. Clozapine



Q.88 When teaching Mr. layag, who has been placed on a high- unsaturated fatty acid diet, the nurse should stress the Importance of increasing the Intake of:
A. Enriched whole milk
B. Red meats, such as beef
C. Vegetables and whole grains
D. Liver and other glandular organ meals



Q.89 Which of the conditions is an early symptoms commonly seen in myasthenia gravis?
A. Dysphagia
B. Fatigue Improving at the end of the day
C. Ptosis
D. Respiratory distress



Q.90 Which of the following statements best describes the Parkinson’s Disease?
A. Loss of myelin sheath surrounding peripheral nerves
B. Degeneration of the substantianigra; depleting dopamine
C. Bleeding into the brain stem, resulting in meter dysfunction
D. An autoimmune disorder that destroys acetylcholine receptors



Q.91 Schizophrenia characterized by phase of stupor or excitement:
A. Simple Schizophrenia
B. Paranoid schizophrenia
C. Hebephrenic schizophrenia
D. Catatonic Schizophrenia



Q.92 Leprosy is also called as:
A. Hartmann’s disease
B. Hansen’s disease
C. Harry’s disease
D. Humprey’s disease



Q.93 The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are 
opportunistic disease. Which of the following opportunistic infections?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Rubella
D. Encephalitis




Q.94 Anti therapeutic communication technique:
A. Silence
B. Questioning
C. Listening
D. Advising



Q.95 Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for a client who
has bipolar disorder with aggressive behavior?
A. Badminton
B. Writing
C. Chess
D. Basket ball



Q.96 In a client with alcohol abuse, Korsakoff’s psychosis may be caused due to
deficiency of:
A. Vitamin A
B. Niacin
C. Thiamine
D. Vitamin C




Q.97 The technique of exposing a client to fear producing sensation in a gradual
manner is called:
A. Biofeedback
B. Imaging
C. Relaxation technique
D. Systematic desensitization



Q.98 Floating tip of the iceberg represents:
A. Clinical cases
B. Apparent cases
C. Latent cases
D. Undiagnosed cases



Q.99 The disease notifiable to the WHO under the International Regulation Act are
all except:
A. Cholera
B. Plague
C. Yellow fever
D. Diphtheria

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