RAK M.Sc.Nursing Entrance Exam 2017 Question Paper PDF

Download RAK M.Sc.Nursing Entrance Exam 2017 Question Paper PDF

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Q.1 When Administering a parenteral Iron preparation to the child, The nurse should
__?
A. Change needle after drawing the drug into the syringe
B. Apply ice pack to the site after the injection
C. Rotate Injections among the four extremities
D. Firmly massage the site after withdrawal of the needle


Q. 2 After administration of Mebendazole (Vermox) to a 4 Year old child for
pinworms, The Nurse should observe the child for?
A. Convulsions
B. Punctuation
C. Worms in the stool
D. Hypertension


Q. 3 The primary reason for using prednisone in the treatment of acute leukaemia in
children is that it is able to ___?
A. Decrease Inflammation
B. Reduce irradiation edema
C. Suppress mitosis in lymphocytes
D. Increase appetite and sense of well being
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Q. 4 An essential Nursing action when caring for the small child with severe diarrhoea
is to.?
A. Force fluid orally
B. Take Daily weight
C. Replace lost calories
D. Keep body temperature below 100'F


Q. 5 Chicken pox can sometimes be fatal to children who are receiving ?
A. Antibiotics
B. Anticonvulsants
C. Steroids
D. Insulin


Q. 6 After closure of Newborn's meningomyelocele it is essential that the Nursing
care Includes?
A. Strict limitation of leg movement
B. Measurement of head Circumference daily
C. Decrease of environmental stimuli
D. Observation of serous drainage from the nares



Q. 7 When teaching an insulin dependent adolescent client about dietary management,
The Nurse should instruct the client to ___
A. Have the parent prepare for food separately from the rest of the family
B. Always carry a concentrated form of glucose
C. Eat all meals at home
D. Weigh all food on a gram Scale


Q. 8 A 6 year old girl begins thumb sucking after surgery. This was not the child's
behavior preoperatively. The Nurse should?
A. Distract her by playing crackers
B. Accept the thumb sucking
C. Report this behavior to the physician
D. Tell her thumb sucking cause buckteeth
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Q. 9 A 10 month old is brought to the emergency room for a head injury after falling
down the stairs. An immediate CT Scan is ordered. In preparing a 10 months old for
CT Scan the nurse should__?
A. Shave the infants head
B. Administer prescribed sedative
C. Give the infant an explanation of the procedure
D. Start the prescribed intravenous infusion


Q. 10 To help parents cope with the behavior of young school aged children, the
nurse suggests that it could help if they would ___?
A. Avoid asking specific questions
B. Be consistent and firm about established rules
C. Write a list of expectations to avoid confusion
D. Allow the child to set up his or her own routines


Q. 11 In relation to obtaining an informed consent from an adolescent, the nurse
should be aware that the adolescent ___?
A. Is not able to make an acceptable or intelligent choice
B. Does not have the legal capacity to give consent
C. Will most likely be unable to choose between alternatives when asked to
consent
D. Is able to give voluntary consent when parents are not available


Q. 12 Severe muscles wasting, growth failure and lose of subcutaneous fat are
features of ___?
A. Beri-Beri
B. Scurvy
C. Kwashiorkor
D. Marasmus


Q. 13 Committee which recommended multiple purpose worker?
A. Mudaliar committee
B. Bhore committee
C. Kartar Singh committee
D. Shrivastava committee
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Q. 14 Under certain circumstances the virus that cause chicken pox can also cause?
A. Athlete's foot
B. Herpes Zoster
C. German measles
D. Infectious hepatitis


Q. 15 When Administering IV Fluids to a small, dehydrated infant, the most critical
factor confronting the nurse is the ___?
A. Assurance of sterility
B. Maintenance of the prescribed rate of flow
C. Calculation of the total necessary intake
D. Maintenance of the fluid at body temperature


Q. 16 Aminophylline is to be given IV for 20 minutes every eight hours to a 20
months old hospitalized with severe asthma. Before Administering the drug, the nurse
should?
A. Check the infant's temperature
B. Administer Oxygen to the infant
C. Take the infants pulse & Monitor the infant's B.P.
D. All of the Above


Q. 17 A 4 year old newly diagnosed with leukemia is placed on bed rest. While

assisting with morning care, the nurse notes bloody expectorant after the child has
brushed the teeth. The nurse should first?
A. Secure a smaller toothbrush for the child's use
B. Record and report the incident without alarming the child
C. Tell the child to be more Careful while brushing the teeth
D. Rinse the child's mouth with half strength hydrogen peroxide


Q. 18 Submerged portion of the iceberg represents?
A. Diagnosed case
B. Clinical case
C. Dead case
D. Treated case
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Q. 19 Vaccine that leaves permanent scar?
A. Measles
B. BCG
C. DPT
D. MMR


Q. 20 Dengue fever is caused due to __?
A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. Protozoa


Q. 21 Oral polio vaccine is prepared from?
A. Killed organism
B. Live attenuated organism
C. Toxoids
D. Aerobic bacteria


Q. 22 Most common method use for identifying community health problems?
A. Lab tests
B. Camp
C. Survey
D. Health Education


Q. 23 Health immunity is not useful in prevention of __?
A. Polio
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Tetanus


Q. 24 Administration of readymade antibiotics is example of.?

A. Active immunity
B. Passive immunity
C. Passive natural immunity
D. Active natural immunity


Q. 25 The constant presence of a disease or infection within a given geographic area
is called as?
A. Epidemic
B. Endemic
C. Pandemic
D. Sporadic


Q. 26 ASHA workers performance is monitored through?
A. Number of deliveries attended
B. Number of visits
C. Reduction of IMR
D. Number of training hours attended


Q. 27 When was the first round of pulse polio programme started ?
A. December 1994
B. January 1994
C. December 1995
D. November 1996


Q. 28 Site of BCG Vaccination is?
A. Left thigh
B. Left Deltoid
C. Right Deltoid
D. Right thigh
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Q. 29 Hepatitis A infection is __?
A. Air borne disease
B. Fecal oral route borne disease
C. Blood borne disease
D. Droplet borne disease


Q. 30 Zoonotic Disease is __?
A. Malaria
B. Rubella
C. Rabies
D. Diphtheria
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Q. 31 The drug used by Health workers in the management of acute respiratory illness
is ?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Benzyl penicillin
C. Gentamycin
D. Cotrimoxazole


Q. 32 Which is the most appropriate time for IUD Insertion?
A. During or within 10 Days of menstruation
B. Just before menstruation
C. Five days after menstruation
D. During mid period of menstrual cycle
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Q. 33 WHO ORS Packet includes all EXCEPT?
A. Potassium chloride
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Sodium chloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate


Q. 34 Measures taken to prevent occurrence of disease?
A. Primary prevention
B. Secondary prevention
C. Tertiary prevention
D. All of the Above


Q. 35 Who was the chairman of health survey and planning committee?
A. AL Mudaliar
B. AK Mukherjee
C. MS Chadha
D. Joseph Bhore


Q. 36 The procedure of removal and ligation of fallopian tube is referred as?
A. Mastectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. Laparotomy
D. Vasectomy


Q. 37 Primary health center covers a population of __?
A. 5000
B. 10000
C. 30000
D. 70000


Q. 38 A table that shows how often different score appear in a set of score is called.?
A. Normal curve
B. Distribution
C. Histogram
D. Polygon
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Q. 39 Number of New cases that occurs with in a specific population within defined
time interval is __?
A. Point prevalence
B. Lifetime prevalence
C. Incidence
D. Period prevalence
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Q. 40 Sand-fly transmits?
A. Kala Azar
B. Enteric fever
C. Chagas disease
D. Bubonic plague


Q. 41 Communicable disease eradicated from India is __?
A. Rubella
B. Rabies
C. Chicken pox
D. Small pox


Q. 42 Hook worm enters the body through __?
A. Feco oral route
B. Respiratory tract
C. Through skin
D. Reproductive tract


Q. 43 Dose given for vitamin A deficiency prophylaxis is?
A. 1.5 Lac IU
B. 2 Lac IU
C. 2.5 Lac IU
D. 30000 IU


Q. 44 Expected weight of a child at one year whose birth weight was 3.5 Kg.?
A. 12.5 kg
B. 11.5 kg
C. 10.5 kg
D. 7.5 kg
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Q. 45 The sum of the values of a variable for set of observations divided by number of
observations refers to __?
A. Median
B. Mode
C. Standard deviation
D. Mean


Q. 46 Reliability of a tool includes following features EXPECT?
A. Equivalence
B. Efficiency
C. Internal consistency
D. Stability


Q. 47 Which is the responsibility of state Nursing Council?
A. Formulation of objectives of Nursing care
B. Transfer of Nursing staff
C. Preparation of job description of Nursing staff
D. Implementation of INC standard of Nursing Education


Q. 48 The degree of consistency with which an instrument measure the attributes it is
supposed to measure?
A. Objectivity
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Validity
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Q. 49 Which is not the element of communication.?
A. Sender
B. Channel
C. Massage
D. Attention
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Q. 50 Which is the example of one way communication.?
A. Class lecture
B. Television lesson
C. Workshop
D. Group discussion


Q. 51 To prevent foot drop in a patient with Buck's Traction, the Nurse should ___?
A. Ensure proper body positioning
B. Teach the client isometric exercises
C. Place pillows under the client's heals
D. Tuck the sheets into foot of the bed
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Q. 52 A comatose patient is at risk for the development of pressure Ulcers, Therefore
the nurse should include which of the following activity in the plan of care.?
A. Wash skin with soap and water frequently
B. Establish an individualized turning schedule
C. Use donut-shaped cushion on the sacral region
D. Massage red areas on bony prominences regularly


Q. 53 A Nurse is teaching a new hemodialysis patient. Hemodialysis is successful in
the treatment of ESRD. Because it __?
A. Restores renal endocrine function
B. Mimics renal function
C. Restores urinary ability
D. Improves immune function


Q. 54 Using the Rule of Nine, the Nurse determines the percentage of the body burnt,
a client with both arms burnt to be __?
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 36%


Q. 55 Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with skeletal traction?
A. Pin care
B. Intermittent weights
C. Prone positioning
D. 5 lb weight limit


Q. 56 A patient has undergone an endoscopy of the upper GI tract. The Nursing care
plan should include which of the following.?
A. Administering analgesics for pain
B. Observing the client for rectal bleeding
C. Withholding foods until a gag reflex is present
D. Positioning the client on the right side


Q. 57 Nursing care for a patient with an arteriovenous (AV) Fistula aimed at
maintaining patency Includes.?
A. Taking BP in the affected area
B. Palpating for a bruit
C. Keeping the arm free of constriction
D. Applying heat to maintain circulation


Q. 58 A Nurse is assigned to care of group of clients. On the review of the client
Medical records the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume
excess.?
A. The client on diuretics
B. The client with ileostomy
C. The client on GI suctioning
D. The client with renal failure
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Q. 59 A Nurse plans care for client with COPD knowing that the client is most likely
to experience what type of acid base balance.?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis


Q. 60 Which of the following arterial blood gas values is consistent with metabolic
acidosis.?
A. Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L
B. PaCO2 48 mm of Hg
C. PH 7.35
D. SpO2 90%


Q. 61 After 48 hours, Successful fluid resuscitation of a burn victim can be evaluated
by __?
A. Weight
B. Urine Output
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Peripheral perfusion


Q. 62 An end stage AIDS Client required suctioning when performing this task the
nurse is correct to wear.?
A. A mask and eye protection
B. Sterile gloves and eye protection
C. A mask and sterile gloves
D. A mask, eye protection and sterile gloves


Q. 63 A Nurse is caring for client who has been taking diuretics on long term basis. A
fluid volume deficit is suspected. Which assessment finding would be noted in a client
with this condition.?
A. Rales
B. CVP
C. BP
D. Hematocrit
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Q. 64 The most common cause of retinal detachment is ___?
A. Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Brain tumor
D. Degenerative changes in the retina and vitreous


Q. 65 A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia.
A Nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the Nursing care
plan.?
A. Ambulation three times daily
B. Monitoring for pathological fractures
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring temperature


Q. 66 To which collaborative health care team member should the nurse refer the
client the late stages of Myasthenia Gravis.?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Vocational Therapist
C. Speech Therapist
D. Recreational Therapist


Q. 67 A Nurse is preparing to care for parent with a potassium (K) deficit the nurse
reviews the patient's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing the
K deficit because of the client.?
A. Is on K sparing diuretics
B. Is on Nasogastric suction
C. Has history of Addison's disease
D. Has history of renal disease


Q. 68 A Nurse is changing the central line dressing of a patient receiving TPN. She
notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. The nurse next assesses which
of the following.?
A. Expiration date on the bag
B. Tightness of tubing connections
C. Clients temperature
D. Time of the last dressing change


Q. 69 The nurse is preparing to hang fat emulsion. The nurse notes that fat globules
are visible at the top of the solution. The nurse takes which of the following Actions.?
A. Roll the bottle of solution vigorously
B. Obtains a different bottle of solution
C. Shakes the bottle of solution gently
D. Runs the bottle of solution under warm water


Q. 70 A patient has just undergone insertion of Central Venous Catheter at the
bedside. A Nurse would be sure to check the results of which of the following before
increasing the flow rate of the IV solution attached to the line.?
A. Serum electrolyte
B. Portable Chest X-Ray
C. Serum Osmolality
D. Intake Output Chart


Q. 71 A Nurse is Assisting a physician with the removal of chest tube. The nurse most
appropriately instructs the patient to ___?
A. Stay very still
B. Inhale and Exhale Quickly
C. Perform Valsalva Maneuver
D. Exhale as the tube is pulled out
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Q. 72 A Nurse is caring for a patient who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Call a code immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Assess the pulse of a patient
D. Continue to monitor the client


Q. 73 Which Laboratory data confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure.?
A. Chest X-Ray
B. Beta Type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. LFT
D. BUN


Q. 74 Which Assessment data would the nurse assess in the client diagnosed with
Gullian Barre syndrome.?
A. Cogwheel rigidity and inability to initiate voluntary movement
B. An exaggerated starle reflex and memory changes
C. Progressive ascending paralysis of the lower extremities and numbness
D. Sudden severe unilateral facial pain and inability to chew


Q. 75 The patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with otitis media. Which
intervention should the clinic Nurse include in the discharge teaching.?
A. Encourage the client to Apply cold packs to the affected ear
B. Instruct the client not to take any over the counter pain medication
C. Wear a protective earplug in affected ear
D. Tell the client to call the HCP if an abrupt relief of ear pain occurs


Q. 76 The patient is Diagnosed with Glaucoma. Which symptom would the nurse
Expect the client to report.?
A. A yellow haze around everything
B. Halos around lights
C. A curtain coming across vision
D. Floating spots in the vision
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Q. 77 Which referral would be most important for the client with permanent hearing
loss.?
A. Aural rehabilitation
B. Speech Therapist
C. Social worker
D. Vocational rehabilitation


Q. 78 The nurse find the patient unresponsive on the floor on bathroom. Which action
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Check the client for breathing
B. Shake the client and shout
C. Assess the carotid artery for pulse
D. Call a code via the bathroom call light


Q. 79 The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with COPD. Which data would
warrant immediate intervention by the Nurse.?
A. The patient's pulse oximeter reading is 92%
B. The patients arterial blood gas level is 74
C. The patient's sputum is rusty colored
D. The patient has SOB when walking to the bathroom


Q. 80 Which type of precaution should the nurse implement to protect from being
exposed to any of the hepatitis viruses.?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Exposure precautions
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Q. 81 What is the priority problem in the client diagnosed with congestive heart
failure.?
A. Fluid volume overload
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Knowledge deficit
D. Activity intolerance


Q. 82 Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the patient diagnosed
with septic meningitis.?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions



Q. 83 The patient diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient
ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipated being ordered
for the patient on discharge.?
A. A. Beta blocker medication
B. An oral anticoagulant medication
C. A thrombolytic medication
D. An anti hyperuricemic medication


Q. 84 A patient diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a
craniotomy for repair of a ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive
care Nurse implement.?
A. Administer a stool softener BID
B. Monitor neurological status every shift
C. Encourage the client to cough hourly
D. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90


Q. 85 Which medication should the nurse Expect the health care provider to order for
a patient diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease.?
A. An Anti-coagulant medication
B. An Anti-platelet medication
C. A muscle relaxant
D. An antihypertensive medication


Q. 86 The following methods can be used to identify training needs EXCEPT ___
A. Professional standards
B. Job Description
C. Employee surveys
D. Job analysis
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Q. 87 Which of the following data indicates whether high quality care is being
maintained.?
A. Audit
B. Quality indicators
C. Key indicators
D. Quality assurances


Q. 88 Which type of patient’s assignment needs specific personnel.?
A. Patient method
B. Team method
C. Functional method
D. None of these


Q. 89 Which of the following is the process by which the manager assigns specific
duties.?
A. Coordination
B. Delegation
C. Supervision
D. Communteation
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Q. 90 Functional Nursing is a method of providing.?
A. Equipment care
B. Patient care
C. Case management
D. Care of records


Q. 91 Which of the following is the most managerial issue in emergency case.?
A. Inadequate Staff
B. Security
C. Triage
D. Inadequate supply


Q. 92 Supervisors have several roles to play. Which of the following is not among the
roles a supervisor plays.?
A. Coach to employees
B. Informing employees regarding organizational policies
C. Authoritative
D. Mentor to employees
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Q. 93 What could be a factor that hinders the smooth running of the team process.?
A. An effective team leader
B. Objectives that are easily achievable
C. Everyone focused on the project
D. Team member having problems


Q. 94 Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of blood which is more than ___?
A. 900 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml


Q. 95 In fetal blood vessels, where is the oxygen content highest.?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Ductus Arteriosus
C. Ductus Venous
D. Umbilical Artery
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Q. 96 The type of hospital patient care assignment which requires giving complete
Nursing care to a specific number and category of patient during the scheduled duty
hours.?
A. Functional assignment
B. Organizational Nursing
C. Team Nursing
D. Individual care assignment


Q. 97 The type of Nursing care assignment is best suited in an intensive care unit.?
A. Case method
B. Primary care method
C. Team method
D. Functional method


Q. 98 What is the normal color of the amniotic fluid when the bag of water ruptures.?
A. As like water
B. Bluish
C. Yellowish
D. Brownish
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Q. 99 Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan
about the method to prevent breast engorgement in post-partum period.?
A. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
B. Breastfeeding neonate at frequently intervals
C. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple Shields
D. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on first day


Q. 100 Which of the following can lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic
fluid.?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Vernix
D. Meconium


Q. 101 To promote comfort during labor, Nurse advices a client to assume certain
positions and avoid other. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal
hypoxia.?
A. Lateral position
B. Supine position
C. Standing position
D. Squatting position
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Q. 102 In which condition, the umbilical cord is attached to the margins of placenta.?
A. Placenta membranacra
B. Battledore placenta
C. Circumvallate placenta
D. Velamentous placenta


Q. 103 What is positive signs of pregnancy.?
A. Frequency of urination
B. Fetal outline by sonography
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Vomiting and headache


Q. 104 According to WHO when should the mother start breastfeeding her infant.?
A. Within 18 hours after birth
B. Within 30 Minutes after birth
C. After infants condition stabilizes
D. Within a day after birth


Q. 105 An Important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the
descent of the Head is known as.?
A. Sacrum
B. Ischial spines
C. Ischial tuberosities
D. Linea terminalis
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Q. 106 Monitoring Contractions is very important during labor. To monitor the
uterine Contractions, what should the nurse do.?
A. Offer ice chips to the woman
B. Spread the fingers lightly over the fundus to monitor the contraction
C. Instruct the client take note of the duration of her contraction
D. Observe for the client's facial expressions to know that the contraction has
started or stopped


Q. 107 The peak point of uterine contraction is called.?
A. Deceleration
B. Axiom
C. Acme
D. Acceleration


Q. 108 Nurse Rashmi is aware that the labor is divided into how many stages.?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five


Q. 109 The indication of forceps delivery is __?
A. Delay in second stage due to hypotonic uterine contraction
B. Delay in first stage due to hypotonic uterine contraction
C. Delay in first stage due to hypertonic uterine contraction
D. Delay in second stage due to hypertonic uterine contraction
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Q. 110 Which of the following fetal positions is most favorable for birth.?
A. Vertex
B. Oblique lie
C. Frank breech presentation
D. Posterior position of the Head


Q. 111 Which of the following condition is common to pregnant clients in the second
trimester of pregnancy.?
A. Breast abscess
B. Physiological Anemia
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Metabolic acidosis


Q. 112 During a regular prenatal visit, A pregnant client reports heartburn. To
minimize her discomfort, Nurse should include which suggestions in the plan of
care.?
A. Drink more citrus juice
B. Limit fluid intake sharply
C. Take sodium bicarbonate
D. Eat small frequent meals


Q. 113 When is the best time to achieve pregnancy.?
A. 14 days before the next period is expected
B. 14 Days after the beginning of period
C. Midway between 7 to 8th day of Ovulation
D. Immediately after starting of menses


Q.114 Which of the following factors might result in a decreased supply of breast
milk in a postpartum mother.?
A. Maternal diet high in vitamin C
B. Supplemental feedings with formula
C. An alcoholic drinks
D. Frequent feeding


Q. 115 Charu is hospitalized for the treatment of severe preeclampsia. Which of the
following represents an unusual finding for this condition.?
A. Generalized edema
B. Convulsions
C. Proteinuria 4+
D. Blood pressure of 160/110
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Q. 116 Seven weeks after the conception the growing structure inside a uterus is now
called.?
A. Neonate
B. Zygote
C. Embryo
D. Fetus


Q. 117 True labor is characterized by ____?
A. Suprapubic discomfort at regular intervals
B. Effacement and dilatation of cervix
C. Painful uterine contraction
D. All of the Above


Q. 118 Aspermia is a term used to describe.?
A. Decrease of semen
B. Absence of sperm
C. Occurrence of abnormal sperm
D. Increase in semen


Q. 119 Which of the following would the nurse identify as a presumptive sign of
pregnancy.?
A. Goodell's sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Cervical Effacement
D. Positive serum pregnancy test
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Q. 120 Neonates born to woman infected with Hepatitis B should undergo.?
A. Hepatitis B vaccine at birth and 1 month
B. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 12 hours of birth, hepatitis B vaccine
at birth, 1 month and 6 months
C. Hepatitis B immune globulin at birth, no hepatitis vaccine
D. Hepatitis B immune globulin within 48 hours of birth and hepatitis B vaccine at
1st month


Q. 121 Oxytocin causes all EXCEPT __
A. Myoepithelial cell contraction
B. Contraction of uterine muscles
C. Lactogenesis
D. Milk ejection


Q. 122 A Nurse is caring for a 16 year old pregnant client. The client is taking an iron
supplements. What should this client drink to increase the absorption of iron.?
A. A liquid antacid
B. A glass of orange juice
C. A glass of milk
D. A cup of hot tea


Q. 123 The permanent cessation of menstruation is called.?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Oligomenorrhea
C. Hypomenorrhea
D. Menopause


Q. 124 In A lady having a regular 28 Days menstrual cycle, what is the safe period.?
A. First and last seven days
B. Initial 28 Days
C. Later 14 days
D. First seven days


Q. 125 Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart
disease.?
A. E-Pills
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Depo-Provera
D. IUCD





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