PREVIOUS YEAR PGIMER CHANDIGARH STAFF NURSE GRADE II EXAM 2015 QUESTIONS PAPERS READ NOW.............
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📖PGIMER CHANDIGARH STAFF NURSE EXAM 2015 QUESTIONS PAPER PDF
PRNCFET.BLOGSPOT.IN PGIMER STAFF NURSE EXAM 2015 QUESTIONS PAPER PDF (Memory Based)
Q 1. Major side effects of Immunosuppressive Drugs Including All of The following EXCEPT _
A. Nausea and vomitingB. Fever with chills and tremors C. Increased WBC count. D. Hepatotoxicity
Q 2. A client is going to chemotherapy for colon cancer. The nurse administer an antiemetic medication 30 minutes before treatment as ordered by physician. Antiemetics drug are used to _
A. Promote destruction of the cancerous cells
B. Increase the effect of chemotherapy drug
C. Prevent Nausea and vomiting.
D. Sedate the client
Q 3. To Diagnose ectopic Pregnancy the Best Investigation is _
D. Urine Pregnancy Test
Q 4. The Most Accurate Oxygen Delivery system is the _
A. Facial Mask
B. Non-rebreather mask
C. Venturi mask.
D. Nasal canula
Q 5. The First signs of Digoxin Toxicity is _
Q 6. A client is admitted with a temperature of 105°F, vomiting and lethargy,Nuchal rigidity. Meningitis is suspected. The nurse prepare for patients which of the following Diagnostic test_
A. CT scan
B. Lumber puncher.
C. Cold calories Test
Q 7 In Applying Mental Health Principles to the Care of Any person with Children, The Nurse should be Aware that _
A. It is Easier to Adjust to the first child the to later ones
B. Every parent has inborn feeling of love and Acceptance for Children.
C. Many parents experience feeling of resentment towards their children
D. It is pathologic to feeling anger and resentment towards a child
Q 8. Which of the following is most commonest cause of liver cirrhosis is _
Q 9. Which of the following is the main Function of Digitalis Drug is _
A. Maintain circulation of blood
B. Increase myocardial contractility.
C. Prevent cardiac Activity
D. Decrease cardiac Activity
Q 10. A Doctor ordered to Administer a Hypotonic intravenous solution to A client. Looking at the following labeled solution, the nurse should choose _
C. 0.90% NS
Q 11. Which of the following statements are Described Appropriate Meaning of 'Drug Abuse' _
A. A physiologic Need for a Drug
B. A psychologic dependence on a Drug
C. An excessive drug use inconsistent with acceptable medical practice.
D. A compulsion to take a drug on either a continuous or period basis
Q 12. Perception of any object in the absence of actual stimulus is termed as_
Q 13. Prophylactic Serum blood lithium level is _
A. 2.0 - 3.0 mEq/L
B. 1.2 - 2.2 mEq/L
C. 0.2 - 0.4 mEq/L
D. 0.6 - 1.2 mEq/L.
Q 14. An Extrapyramidal symptom that is a potentially irreversible side effect of chlorpromazine and other antipsychotic drugs is :-
B. Tardive Dyskinesia.
C. Occulogyric crisis
D. Pseudo Parkinsonism
Q 15. Which of the following Immediate management to Restore BP and peripheral circulation in a client with multiple fracture and fluid loss would be _
A. RL Infusion.
B. Blood transfusion
C. NS infusion
D. Dextrose 5%
Q 16. Maximum total Score of Glasgow coma scale is_
Q 17. In giving of Enema, the fluid flows by gravity into the sigmoid and Desending colon,if the hv patient is placed in the_
A. Lithotomy position
B. Left Lateral position.
C. Horizontal position
D. Dorsal Recumbent position
Q 18. A Nurse is suctioning fluids from a client via a tracheotomy tube. When suctioning, the nurse must limit the suctioning time to a maximum of _
A. 5 seconds
B. 10 seconds.
C. 30 seconds
D. 1 minute
Q 19. When Assessing a client in the early stages of cirrhosis of liver, what sign would be anticipated?
D. Peripheral edema
Q 20. Blood appears at the hub of the needle while the nurse is aspirating an intramuscular injection. The nurse should _
A. Discard the syringe and prepare a new injection.
B. Remove the syringe and attach a new needle
C. Withdraw the needle slightly and nject the solution
D. Interrupt the procedure and notify the physician
Q 21. A patient who received spinal anaesthesia is transferred to the post anaesthesia care unit. What is the most important and post operative priority nursing assessment of this patient.?
A. Peripheral circulation
B. Orientation to time and place
C. Level of consciousness
D. Sensation in the legs and toes.
Q 22. A client is discharged to home after application of a plaster leg cast. The nurse determines that the client understands proper care of the cast if the client states that he should --
A. Avoid getting the cast wet.
B. Use the finger tips to lift and move the leg
C. Cover the casted leg with warm blankets
D. Use a padded coat hanger end to scratch under the cast
Q 23. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis, one day ago suddenly develops shortness of breath and anxious. A nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of _
A. Myocardial infarction
C. Pulmonary embolism.
D. Pulmonary edema
Q 24.A Nurse is making a NCP For a client with a diagnosis of immunodeficiency. Which of the following priority nursing action would be most appropriate for this client _
A. Providing emotional support to decrease fear
B. Encouraging discussion about life style changes
C. Identifying factors that decreased the immune function
D. Protecting the client from infection.
Q 25. Uncontrolable Risk factor of CAD(Coronary Artery Disease) is _
Q 26. Intravenous heparin therapy is ordered for a client, while implementing this order, a nurse ensures that which of the following medication is available on nursing unit ?
A. Vitamin - k
B. Protamine sulphate.
C. Aminocaproic acid
D. Potassium chloride
Q 27. A Nurse teaches the client with heart failure to take oral frusemide in the morning. What is the primary reason for this instructions to client?
A. To prevent sleep disturbances during the night.
B. To prevent electrolyte imbalance
C. To retard rapid drug absorption
D. To excrete excessive fluids accumulated during night
Q 28. Proper hand placement for chest compression during CPR Procedure is essential to reduce the risk of the following complications?
A. GI bleeding
B. Rib fracture.
Q 29. The primary purpose of the schilling test is to measure the client’s ability to _
A. Absorb vitamin B12.
B. Digest vitamin B12
C. Produces vitamin B12
D. Store vitamin B12
Q 30. Which of the following would be a priority nursing diagnosis for a client with ARDS.?
B. Ineffective health maintenance
C. Ineffective breathing pattern.
D. Risk for infection
Q 31. The vaccine used for the prevention of cervical cancer is _
C. Hepatitis B
Q 32. In a patient with acute appendicitis, the nurse should anticipate which of the following treatments.?
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A. Administration of heat to the abdomen
B. Administration of enemas to cleanse bowel
C. Insertion of Nasogastric tube
D. Placement of client on NPO/NBM status
Q. 33. What is the most potentially Dangerous Complication of peritoneal dialysis.?
B. Abdominal pain
C. Muscle cramps
D. GI bleeding
Q 34. Which post operative activity does the nurse encourage the client to avoid, when there is a risk of increased ICP.?
A. Deep breathing
D. Passive range of motion exercises
Q 35. A Nurse is caring a patient who have just operates for Tonsillectomy surgery. Which of the following patient complaint indicates heavy bleeding_
A. An elevation in blood pressure
B. Frequent swallowing.
C. A decreased pulse rate
D. Complaint of Discomfort
Q 36. A client just completed a course in Radiation therapy and is experiencing radiodermatitis. The most effective method of treating the skin is to _
A. Apply a cream or lotion to the area
B. Leave the skin alone until is clear.
C. Avoid applying creams or lotions to the area
D. Wash the area with soap and warm water
Q 37. " Choanal Atresia " is a genetic anomaly, located in the _
B. Pharynx and larynx
C. Intestinal tract
D. Anal area
Q 38. The most serious complication of meningitis in young children is _
D. Peripheral circulatory collapse
Q 39. Which of the following function as First Referral Unit (FRUs)in India?
A. Sub center
B. Primary health centre
C. Community health centre.
D. Regional hospital
Q 40. Normally, after Menopause women have increase the risk of develop ' Osteoporosis ' Disease condition.according to the nurse what is the main cause of this condition ?
A. Fall in LH level
B. Decrease level of oestrogen.
C. Increase level of oestrogen
D. Fall in FSH level
Q 41. "Pap's Smear test" is used for screening of which of the following.?
A. Cervical cancer.
B. Ovarian cancer
C. Liver cancer
D. Breast cancer
Q 42. Which of the following terms are used for ' movement of fetus, felt by a pregnant woman at about 18-20 week of pregnancy _
Q 43. The average weight gain per week during later months of pregnancy is _
A. 1.5 kg
B. 1.0 kg
C. 0.25 kg
D. 0.5 kg.
Q 44. A client's condition following cardiac catheterization is evaluated by palpating the pulse
A. Above the catheter insertion
B. At the insertion site
C. Distal to the catheter insertion.
D. In all extremities
A. Low fat in diet.
B. High protein and calories in diet
C. High fat and carbohydrates in diet
D. Low protein and carbohydrate in diet
Q 46. The normal range of CVP is _
A. 5 to 15 cm.H2O
B. 10 to 15 cm.H2O
C. 10 to 20 cm.H2O
D. 5 to 10 cm.H2O.
A. 100 Kcal
B. 200 Kcal
C. 300 Kcal.
D. 500 Kcal
A. 1.5 times
B. 2 times
C. 3 times.
D. 4 times
A. 11 drops/minute
B. 31 drops/minute.
C. 41 drops/minute
D. 21 drops/minute
A. Mental Retardation
C. Family history of cardiac anomalies
D. Delayed physical growth.
A. Climbing of the end of the bed of night
B. Pulling out IV line.
C. Picking at lint on bed linens
D. Wandering into other patient's rooms
A. Periods of hyperpnoea alternating with period of apnea
B. An increase in both rate and depth of respirations
C. Period of tachypnea alternating with periods of apnea.
D. None of these
Q 54. The surgeon has scheduled a patient for a left pneumonectomy. The position that will most likely be ordered post operatively for this patient is _ A. Back only B. Back or other side C. Un- operative side or back D. Operative side or back.
A. Closing the doors to the room
B. Turning on the overhead radiant warmer
C. Warming the crib pad
D. Drying the infant with a warm blanket.
A. Initiate an intravenous line
B. Administer oxygen 8 to 10 L/min by face mask.
C. Assess the client’s blood pressure
D. Prepare to administer morphine sulfate
A. Feed the newborn less frequently
B. Stop breast feeding and switch to bottle feeding frequently
C. Continue to breast feed every 2 to 4 hours.
D. Switch to bottle feeding the infant for 2 weeks
A. Pulling skin laterally away from the injection site before inserting the needle
B. Inserting the needle and injecting medication without aspirating.
C. Using a 2 to 3 inch needle
D. Placing 0.3 to 0.5 ml of air into the syringe
A. Encourage the intake of clear fluid
B. Teach controlled coughing and deep breathing.
C. Provide a quiet and bright environment
D. Elevating the head 15 to 30 degree
A. Shock and denial.
C. A maladaptive response to bad news
D. A psychotic episode
B. Mental IQ tests
C. Head circumference and height.
D. Denver developmental screening test
A. ELISA Test
B. CD4, HIV load.
D. Hepatitis, PPD
A. In the myometrium
B. Approximately 7-10 days after ovulation.
C. Only during days 1-14 of MC
D. Once estrogen and progesterone levels drop off
A. Pathological jaundice
B. Obstructed jaundice
C. Physiological jaundice.
D. Viral hepatitis
B. Renal dysfunction C. Pulmonary dysfunction
D. All of the above.
Q 67. "Discharge planning " should begin _
A. As soon as the client is ready to discuss it
B. On the day of discharge
C. On the day of admission.
D. When You find out when the client will be going home
A. 6 weeks.
B. 8 weeks
C. 12 weeks
D. 16 weeks
A. 8 hours
B. 72 hours
C. 7 days
D. 24 hours
A. Hypnotics B. Tricyclic antidepressants. C. Anti anxiety drugs D. Major tranquillizers
A. Maslow's Hierarchy of human needs.
B. Dangers of illness model
C. Interpersonal theory
D. Information processing model
A. Birth to 1 year old.
B. Over 65 years old
C. 3 to 5 years old
D. 13 to 19 year old
A. Prolonged labour B. Normal labour
C. Difficult labour
D. Precipitate labour.
A. Thyroid storm.
D. Grave's disease
A. Face presentatio
B. Right occipito posterior
C. Brow presentation
D. Breech presentation.
A. Oral Route
B. Axillary Route
C. Rectal Route.
D. Tympanic Route
A. Abstract thought.
B. Tieing his shoelaces
C. Making decisions
D. Hand eye coordination
A. Client you do not know well
B. Those infected with HIV
C. Those with risk factor for HIV
D. All clients.
Q 80. Which of the following type of cells are LEAST affected by Radiation ?
A. Hair follicles
B. Cancer cells
C. Heart muscle.
D. GI muscle For
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